Marked POLITY PT 365 2024
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POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Table of Contents
1. ISSUES RELATED TO THE CONSTITUTION 4 4.1. Judicial appointment _______________ 31
4.1.1. All India Judicial Services (AIJS) ________ 32
1.1. Basic Structure Doctrine _____________ 4
1.1.1. Independence of District Judiciary: Basic 4.2. Legal Aid _________________________ 32
Structure _______________________________ 5
4.3. Mediation Act, 2023 ________________ 33
1.2. Abrogation of Article 370 ____________ 5 4.3.1. Lok Adalats ________________________ 35
1.3. National Capital Territory of Delhi 4.4. Model Prisons Act 2023 _____________ 35
(Amendment) Act, 2023 _________________ 6 4.5. Other Important News ______________ 37
1.4. Preventive Detention _______________ 7
5. ELECTIONS ________________________ 40
1.5. Personality Rights __________________ 9
5.1. Chief Election Commissioner and other
1.6. Hate Speech _______________________ 9 Election Commissioners Act, 2023 ________ 40
1.7. Places of Worship Act, 1991 _________ 11 5.2. Aspects of Election Process and Reform 41
1.8. Other Important News _____________ 12 5.3. Simultaneous Elections _____________ 42
2. FUNCTIONING OF PARLIAMENT, STATE 5.4. Criminalization of Politics____________ 42
LEGISLATURE/LOCAL GOVERNMENT ____ 14 5.5. Electoral Funding __________________ 43
2.1. No-confidence Motion _____________ 14 5.6. Other Important News ______________ 44
2.2. Parliamentary Privileges of Lawmakers 14 6. IMPORTANT LEGISLATIONS/BILLS _____ 47
2.2.1. Expulsion of Lawmakers _____________ 16
6.1. Nari Shakti Vandan [Constitution (106th
2.3. Anti-defection law_________________ 17
Amendment)] Act, 2023 ________________ 47
2.4. Ordinance making power of President and
6.2. Multi-State Co-operative Societies
Governor ____________________________ 18
(Amendment) Act, 2023 ________________ 47
2.5. Secretariat of the Parliament ________ 19
6.3. Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023 48
2.6. Democratic Decentralisation in India __ 19 6.3.1. OTT Regulation in India ______________ 49
2.6.1. Finances of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)
6.4. Digital Personal Data Protection Act 202350
______________________________________ 20
6.4.1. Digital Services Act __________________ 52
2.6.2. Capacity Building of Urban Local Bodies (ULB)
______________________________________ 21 6.5. Criminal Law Reform Acts ___________ 52
6.5.1. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 _________ 52
2.7. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
6.5.2. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 53
Areas) Act, 1996 ______________________ 22 6.5.3. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 _____ 53
2.8. Other Important News _____________ 23 6.6. Registration of Birth and Death
3. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS __________ 26 (Amendment) Act, 2023 ________________ 54
3.1. Role of Governor __________________ 26 6.7. Press and Registration of Periodicals Act,
2023 ________________________________ 55
3.2. Cooperative Federalism ____________ 27
6.8. Telecommunications Act 2023 ________ 55
3.3. Inter-State Border Disputes _________ 27 6.8.1. Internet Shutdowns _________________ 56
3.4. Inter-State Water Disputes __________ 29 6.9. Other Important News ______________ 57
4. JUDICIARY _______________________ 31
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7. IMPORTANT 8.2. Right to Information (RTI) ___________ 65
CONSTITUTIONAL/STATUTORY/ EXECUTIVE 8.3. Aadhaar__________________________ 67
BODIES IN NEWS ____________________ 59
8.4. Regulation of Online Gaming _________ 68
7.1. Lokpal __________________________ 59
8.5. Consumer Protection in India ________ 69
7.2. Delimitation Commission ___________ 60
8.6. Guidelines for Celebrities, Influencers, and
7.3. Directorate of Enforcement _________ 60 Virtual Influencer ______________________ 70
7.4. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) __ 60 8.7. Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
7.5. National Cadet Corps (NCC) _________ 61 Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Act, 2006 ____________________________ 70
7.6. Other Important News _____________ 63
8.8. Other Important News ______________ 71
8. IMPORTANT ASPECTS OF GOVERNANCE 65
8.1. Mission Karmayogi ________________ 65
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1. ISSUES RELATED TO THE CONSTITUTION
1.1. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
Why in the news?
The landmark Kesavananda Bharati
judgement, 1973 which propounded
the basic structure doctrine completed
50 years.
About the Kesavananda Bharati Case,
1973
• It dealt with a petition against the
compulsory acquisition of land by
the Kerala government under the
Kerala Land Reforms Act 1963, as a
violation of Fundamental Rights
(FRs) under Articles 25, 26 and 31
of the Constitution.
• The case was heard by the largest
ever bench (i.e. 13 Judges’ Bench)
of the Supreme Court (SC).
• Key Outcomes
o Introduction of Basic
Structure Doctrine: Upholding
the validity of the 24th ·
Constitutional amendment
the SC held that Parliament
- -
✓ However, such amendments should not alter, damage or destroy the essential features or the
1
Basic Structure of the Constitution. Some Principles that are presently part of the
✓ Earlier in Golak Nath case (1967), the ‘Basic Structure.’
Supreme Court held that the power to • Sovereignty of India
amend the Constitution under Article 368 • Essential features of the individual freedoms
was not unlimited and that the FRs secured to the Citizens
guaranteed under the Constitution could
• Mandate to build a welfare State
not be abrogated or abridged by a
• Supremacy of the Constitution
constitutional amendment.
• Republican and democratic form of
o Power of Judicial review: The court held that
government
the power of judicial review is an integral part of
the basic structure of the Constitution. • Secular and federal character of the
o Other judgments: SC upheld the 25th and 29th Constitution
Constitutional Amendments except for the • Separation of powers between the legislature,
parts that curtailed its power of judicial review executive and the judiciary
and asserted that the Preamble is a part of the • Unity and integrity of the nation
/
Constitution and hence amendable. • Power of judicial review
• Harmony and balance between FRs and
About Basic Structure Doctrine DPSPs
• It holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution, cannot be amended or abrogated by the
Parliament.
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⑳
--
Basic structure in terms
of
-
its
of defines
...
>
-
Constitution India
e
-
• There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Constitution of India.
• Significance of the doctrine
o Check on the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
-
o Ensures that the Constitution remains a living document that is responsive to changing times while
preserving its fundamental values and principles.
o Laid down several principles that have become the bedrock of constitutional law in India such as
the rule of law, separation of powers, and the independence of the judiciary.
o Ensures that the federal structure of the Constitution is not undermined.
o Shapes the judiciary's approach to constitutional interpretation.
-
District Judiciary
-
-
• The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district.
-
- -
-
•
Organisational structure, jurisdiction and nomenclature of subordinate judiciary are laid down by
O
-
- -
-
- -
states. Hence, they differ slightly from state to state (Broadly three tiers below the high court)
-
-
O
O
>
-
• Appointment, posting and promotion of district judges are made by the governor of the state in
-
- -
-
consultation with the High Court.
---
1.2. ABROGATION OF ARTICLE 370
Why in the news?
A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court recently upheld the validity of the Union Government's 2019
decision to repeal the special status of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) under Article 370 of the Constitution.
ordinance
More on the news lawx
• >
-
On August 5th 2019, the President of India promulgated an order- ‘Constitution (Application to Jammu and
Kashmir) Order, 2019’, which stated that provisions of the Indian Constitution are applicable in the State.-
o Parliament also enacted the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019 which bifurcated the State
into two Union Territories (UTs).
- -
• The petitioners had challenged the constitutionality of these actions of the Union.
The Judgment
• Upholding the presidential proclamations of August 2019, the SC held that J&K did not retain any
element of sovereignty after it acceded to India in 1947.
• SC held that Article 370 is a temporary, transitional provision.
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• The court held that a UT can be carved out of a State.
-
o Parliament may by law "form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two
or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State".
o According to Explanation 1 to Article 3, the word "State", as used in Article 3(a), includes a Union
territory.
• Relying on the judgment in S R Bommai’s case, SC held that ‘actions of President during a State
emergency were open to judicial scrutiny’.
Article 370: A Historical Context
• Instrument of Accession (IoA): In October 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh, the last ruler of J&K signed the IoA
through which he agreed to accede his state to the Dominion of India.
• Temporary provisions for J&K: Under the Constitution, Article 370 was placed in Part XXI, titled
“Temporary and Transitional provisions”.
• Article 370: Except for defence, foreign affairs, finance and communications, Parliament needed the state
presidentic government’s concurrence for applying all other laws.
ordering
via •
[
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution: It stemmed out of Article 370 and gave powers to the J&K Assembly
to define permanent residents of the state, their special rights, and privileges.
TArticle 3
• It provides that Parliament may by law form new states and alter of areas, boundaries or names of
existing States.
• First Proviso to the article states that bill for above law,
-o Shall be introduced in either House of Parliament on the recommendation of the President.
-o If the bill affects the area, boundaries or name of any State, the President must refer the bill to
- - -
- >
• Powers of the LG: Matters where the LG may act solely on his discretion are:
o Matters outside the legislative competence of the Delhi Legislative Assembly but which have been
delegated to the LG, or
o Matters where he/she is required by law to act in his discretion or exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial
functions.
• Primacy to LG: It expands the discretionary role of the LG by giving him powers to approve the
recommendations of the NCCSA or return them for reconsideration.
o The LG's decision will be final in the case of a difference of opinion between him and the Authority.
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• Disposal of matters by Ministers: Certain matters must be submitted to the LG by the ministers of the Delhi
-
Government, through the Chief Minister and the Chief Secretary, for his/her opinion prior to the issue of any
=
+ - -
o Relations between the Delhi government and the central government, Supreme Court, or other state
- - -
governments,
-
-
the President, or an
administrator
appointed by the
- President. -
• Special Status: Following
the recommendations of
the S. Balakrishnan
--
- -
Committee, the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 conferred special status on Delhi and
- - -
ministers. Y
- E
o It added Article 239AA to the Constitution and made Delhi a UT with a legislature and a council of
-
- -
-
--
o The Lieutenant Governor (LG) is designated as the administrator of Delhi, operating with the aid and
-
--
• Powers of Delhi Legislature: The Delhi Legislative Assembly has the power to legislate over subjects in
the State List and Concurrent List, except for police, public order, and land.
o Also, Parliament can legislate over all matters in the State and Concurrent Lists related to Delhi.
-
• GNCTD Act: The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991 lays down the
framework for the functioning of the Delhi Assembly and the Delhi government.
• Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court, on a mere
-
o Its purpose is to prevent the person from committing an offence in the near future.
• Protection against arrest and detention under
- - -
-Articles 22 (1) and 22 (2) is not available to a person
- -
arrested or detained under preventive detention laws (Article 22(3)).
- - - -
• Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the
defence, foreign affairs and security of India.
---
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• Both Parliament, as well as state legislatures, can concurrently make a law for reasons connected with
the Security of a state, Maintenance of public order and Maintenance of supplies and services.
- - -
o Multiple laws such as the Code of Criminal Procedure, Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic Substance Act
-
(NDPS) 1985, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act etc. permit Preventive Detention.
- -
- -
②
- -
-
- -
-
↳
O
- the
coursel detention
-
Exempte legal
O
2023
-
- preventive
Constitution
providing held for If
states from being
to
a person
-
-
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·
1.5. PERSONALITY RIGHTS
Why in the News?
Recently, Delhi High Court granted protection to a famous Bollywood actor’s personality rights from misuse by
third parties.
About Personality Rights
• Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or
property.
o It includes name, voice, signature, images or any other feature easily identified as markers of
personality.
Personality Rights in India
• Personality rights or their protection are not expressly mentioned in any statute in India but are traced to
fall under the right to privacy and the right to property.
• Two Components of Personality Rights
o Right to publicity: Right to keep one’s image and likeness from being commercially exploited without
permission.
✓ It is governed by statutes like the Trade Marks Act, of 1999 and the Copyright Act, of 1957.
o Right to privacy: Right to not have one’s personality represented publicly without permission.
✓ It is broadly governed under Article 21 of the Constitution and the Supreme Court judgment in
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) Case (2018).
Posthumous Personality Rights
• Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950: Protects unauthorized use of a few
dignitaries’ names and symbols listed in its schedule.
• IPC: If negative reference or derogatory representation is made to any deceased person's reputation or their
family, a defamation suit can be filed under the Indian Penal Code.
Personality rights under international convention
• There is no explicit international convention or treaty on protection of the publicity rights to date.
• However, certain publicity rights can be derived from the following international conventions:
o Rome Convention (1961): It protects performers’ rights, phonogram producers’ rights and broadcasting
rights.
o TRIPS Agreement (1994): It secures certain rights of the phonogram producers, live performers and
broadcast rights.
o WIPO Performances and Phonograms -
Treaty (WPPT): It protects the rights of performers and
phonogram producers, particularly in digital environment.
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i
m 1.6. HATE SPEECH
Why in the news?
Recently, the Supreme Court stressed the need for stakeholders to find a long-term solution to the problem of
hate speech.
About Hate Speech
• Hate speech has not been defined in any law in India.
o However, hate speech generally refers to incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons.
• Hate speech can be conveyed through any form of expression, including images, cartoons, memes, objects,
gestures and symbols and it can be disseminated offline or online.
Regulation of Hate Speech in India
• Constitutional provision: Hate speech can be curtailed under Article 19(2) on the grounds of public order,
incitement to offence and security of the State.
↑
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
o Section 196 (1) penalises promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race,
place of birth, residence, language, etc.
o Section 299 defines punishment for deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage the religious
feelings of any class.
o Section 353 (1) and (2) penalise the publication or circulation of any statement, rumour or report
causing public mischief and enmity, hatred or ill-will between classes.
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- • Representation of People Act, 1951:
o Section 8 disqualifies a person from contesting an election if he is convicted for indulging in acts
amounting to illegitimate use of freedom of speech and expression.
o Section 123(3A) and section 125 prohibit the promotion of enmity on the grounds of religion, race,
caste, community or
language in connection
with election as a
corrupt electoral
practice.
&
• Protection of Civil Rights
Act, 1955:
o Section 7 penalises
incitement to and
encouragement of
untouchability through
words, either spoken or
written or by signs,
visible representations,
or otherwise.
• Religious Institutions
(Prevention of Misuse) Act,
1988:
o Section 3(g) prohibits
religious institutions or their managers from using religious premises to promote disharmony or
hatred among various religious groups.
-
& ASI
Mathena Agreement took place
:
first
o The disputed site at Ayodhya is exempted from the Act. it e to defin
Y that agreeme
o The Act also does not apply to plea to pros not right
was
✓ monuments and sites covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Temple
Act, of 1958. existed by
✓ any dispute that has been finally settled or disposed of Musque
↓
✓ any conversion of any such place effected before such commencement by acquiescence.
Right to
• Penalty: Section 6 of the Act prescribes a punishment of a maximum of three years imprisonment along
vonship visible
with a fine for contravening the provisions of the Act. dich & invisible
given
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1.8. OTHER IMPORTANT NEWS
8th • Odisha Cabinet has proposed for the
Schedule of inclusion of Kui language in the 8th
Constitution Schedule.
• Schedule 8 of Indian Constitution:
o It enlists the Official language of
the Country and consists of 22
languages currently.
o 14 languages were originally listed
in the Constitution and the rest were
added over time.
-
o Sindhi was introduced by the 21st
Amendment Act of 1967, Konkani,
Manipuri, and Nepali
- -- by the 71st
Amendment Act of 1992, and -
I
for locals in Candidates Act, 2020.
private o Act provided 75% reservation to locals in private sector jobs (having monthly salary
sector of less than Rs. 30,000).
• HC declared it unconstitutional and violative of Part III (Fundamental rights) of the
Constitution of India.
o It also said that Act violates Constitutional Morality.
✓ Constitutional Morality refers to adherence to the fundamental principles of
the constitution.
challenge
o It said State cannot discriminate against the individuals on account of the fact that
they do not belong to a certain State (negative discrimination).
• Other States like Andhra Pradesh (2019) have also enacted similar acts.
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Affirmative • Affirmative Action means positive action/discrimination which was introduced in US
Action to counter historical patterns of prejudice against individuals with certain identities
e.g. Black, Hispanic and other minority students.
• Reservation is a system of affirmative action in India that provides historically
disadvantaged groups representation in education, employment, government
schemes, scholarships, and politics.
o Article 15(4) and 16(4) allows the government to provide for reservation.
o Reservation Quota fixed at 50% (Indra Swahney judgement) for OBC, SC & ST in
both employment and education. --
3
o Report by Commission (2007) recommended that Scheduled caste status be N
completely delinked from religion and be made religion neutral like STs.
o It had recommended permitting Dalits who converted to Islam and Christianity to
avail Scheduled Caste status.
Article 355 • Article 355 is a part of emergency provisions contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution
E
(from Article 352 to 360).
o Article 355 says that ‘It shall be the duty of Union to protect every State against
external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that Government of
every State is carried on in accordance with provisions of this Constitution.
Right To •②Punjab has become the first state to implement the 'right to walk'.
Walk • Right to walk make it mandatory for all road-owning agencies, including the NHAI, to
-
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-
2. FUNCTIONING OF PARLIAMENT,
LEGISLATURE/LOCAL GOVERNMENT
-
D If
- -his
able
the
to
PM
vote
STATE
belonged
in
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to Upper
favour
house/RS
in theeventof a
will not be
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com exclusive of is
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against power
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2004 2014 2022 ,
2.1. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
,
, NCM in the Constitution
⑤ -
There is no mentio of a
-
LS
If be introduced in
only
NCM can
-
I
-
Why in the news? &* =
Union government faced a no-confidence motion in the Monsoon session of the parliament. I -'
E ] _ X
-
i -
-Privtige
about
only read
Prelime
Posidee
Why in the news? for
Recently, the Supreme Court set up a seven-judge bench headed by the Chief Justice of India for
reconsideration of its 1998 judgement in the P V Narasimha Rao case.
More on the news
• P V Narasimha Rao case Judgement came in the backdrop of the 1993 Jharkhand Mukti Morcha bribery
case.
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o It upheld legal immunity granted to legislators against criminal prosecution on bribery charges for
any speech or vote in Parliament as per Articles 105(2) and 194(2) of the Constitution.
About Parliamentary Privileges
• It refers to legal immunity, wherein legislators are granted protection against civil or criminal liability
for certain actions or statements made in the course of their legislative duties.
o If an individual or authority undermines a parliamentary privilege of a member or the House, it is
called a ‘Breach of privilege’.
-
• Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges.
•
- Parliament is the sole authority to ascertain if there has been a breach or contempt of the House— no
court is entrusted with this power.
o A member of the House can raise a question involving a breach of privilege with the consent of the
-
Chairman or Speaker.
Privileges are based on five sources. --
• Constitutional provisions
To Article 105: Powers and privileges of both
Houses of Parliament and its members
and committees.
M Article 194: Powers, privileges and
o -
-
of the Legislature of a State under
-
- - - -
Article 194(2).
o Freedom of Speech in Parliament: Article
105(2) states that “No member is liable to
any proceedings in any court for anything -
or its committees”.
✓ This freedom is subject to the
provisions of the Constitution (E.g.
ArticleO 121 restricts members from
discussing judges’ conduct) and to the rules and procedures of the parliament, under Article 118.
-
-o Article 122: Restricts the courts from inquiring into the validity of any proceeding of Parliament on the
-
grounds of alleged irregularity of procedure. -
② Privilege Committee
② • Laws made by Parliament.
o Freedom from Arrest: Code of Civil
• It is a parliamentary standing committee
- m
-
present in both Houses of Parliament.
Procedure, 1908 provides legislators freedom
-
-
from arrest in any civil case 40 days before Sabha (10 in case of Rajya
and after the adjournment of the house and Sabha) nominated by the
also during the session of the house. Speaker (Chairman in case of Rajya
·
✓ However, an MP doesn’t enjoy any such Sabha).
immunity in a criminal case.
• Key Function: Investigate questions
• Rules of both the Houses
o Privileges based on Rules of Procedure and
precedents: Parliament reserves the right to
involving the breach of privileges of House or
members, as referred to it by presiding officer -
of Houses.
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receive immediate information of the arrest, detention, conviction, imprisonment, and release of a
member on a criminal charge or for a criminal offence.
o Right to Exclude Strangers: House has the power and right to exclude strangers from the
O
proceedings. This right is essential for securing free and fair discussion in the house.
44s • Other Sources: Parliamentary conventions and judicial interpretations.
-
- -
-
-
• -Parliament is the sole authority to ascertain if there has been a breach or contempt of the House—
⑭
-
- - -
o In case if an MP is found guilty, he can be suspended from the House or face expulsion.
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• Article 122 of the Indian Constitution says parliamentary proceedings (including those related to
expulsion) can’t be questioned by the judiciary, although the courts have intervened in some cases.
o In the Raja Rampal case (2007), the Court upheld the expulsion of Raja Ram Pal but noted that
proceedings tainted by substantial illegality are open to judicial scrutiny.
• Expulsion and disqualification are not the same. The Constitution provides for both expulsion and
disqualification. Under disqualification member of the parliament cannot contest the elections further while
under expulsion he/she can.
-
• Disqualification of a lawmaker
o RPA, 1951: Under Section 8(4), a lawmaker is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further
six years if sentenced for two years or more in prison.
o Tenth Schedule of the Constitution: Provides for the disqualification on grounds of defection.
o Articles 102 (1) and 191 (1): For disqualification of a MP and a MLA respectively, on grounds of holding
an office of profit, being of unsound mind or insolvent or not having valid citizenship.
> - political party
chedule
Why in the news?
-
decide a
defection case
-
Maharashtra Speaker dismissed all petitions seeking the disqualification of MLAs under Anti-defection law.
About Anti-defection Law
• Anti-defection law was included under the 10th schedule via the 52nd Amendment Act, of 1985.
o Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer
of the House.
• Disqualification happens if:
o A member:
✓ voluntarily gives up his party membership, or
✓ votes/abstain to vote in the House contrary to the direction issued by his political party and such
act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
o An independent member becomes disqualified if s/he joins any political party after such an election.
- o A nominated member becomes disqualified if s/he joins any political party after the expiry of 6
- months from the date on which he takes a seat.
• Exception: Law allows
a political party to
merge with or into
another party provided
that 2/3rd of its
legislators are in
favour.
o If a person is elected
as speaker of Lok Recently
Sabha, Deputy
speaker and Deputy
I
MH
-
chairman of Rajya
Sabha, then he speaker
could resign from his
party and rejoin the
party once he/she
demits the posts.
• Presently, the Law does not provide a time limit within which the Presiding officers have to decide on the
catsitif
anti-defection case.
17
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About Whip
• Rule 2, of the anti-defection law puts the party members into a bracket of obedience to the party whip
and policies.
• In Parliament parlance, a whip may refer to:
o a written order for party members to follow a certain direction, and
o a designated official of the party who is authorised to issue such a direction.
• The term originates from the British practice of "whipping in" lawmakers to follow the party line.
-
-
⑳Mile
of no - Ordinance
②
2.4. ORDINANCE MAKING POWER OF PRESIDENT AND GOVERNOR
make ordinance
-
&
-
when
Parliament
↳
either
is not
of
in
2 houses
sension
of
-
o The ordinance may lapse earlier if the President/Governor withdraws it or if both Houses pass
resolutions disapproving it.
o In case of state legislature, resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and
agreed to by the Legislative Council, if any.
o Ordinances can only be issued on matters on which Parliament or Legislature can make laws and
are subject to the same limitation as Parliament/Legislature to make laws.
• However, the Governor of a
State cannot make an
ordinance without the
reference of the President
in the following cases:
To If
- bills containing
-
similar
-
provisions
would have required,
-
President
- -
for
introduction
-
in the
Assembly.
-
-
-
-o If the Governor would
have deemed
- n
it
necessary to reserve a
-
-
bill containing similar
provisions
-
for
consideration of the President.
-
q
-o If an act of state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid without
receiving the President’s assent.
18
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E 2.5. SECRETARIAT OF THE PARLIAMENT
Why in the News?
As the Parliament completes 75 years, the Parliament secretariat has been the custodian of procedure,
precedent and legislative knowledge of the two Houses.
Constitutional provisions
- • Article 98: Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff.
o Parliament may by law regulate the
recruitment, and the conditions of
service of persons appointed, to the
secretarial staff of either House. -
Parliament.
• Article 187 makes similar provisions for
the Secretariat of State Legislatures.
• 'Council of States Secretariat' and
'Parliament Secretariat' (for House of - >
- -
-
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Democratic Decentralisation in India
them
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-
Y Attempt
-
-
• It refers to the devolution of power, resources and decision-making authority from the central
government to local governments, such as panchayats and municipalities.
• The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 that came into force in 1993 introduced
:
Gram Sabha
democratic decentralization in India.
243
:
Definitions
B :
: Composition
E : Duration
F :
safe
Disqualification
• Panchayati Raj Institution was constitutionalized • Urban local
-
governments were
-
etc
responsibility
& Funds
H : Taxes
Account Auditing
• This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of • It added Part IX -A and consists of
I : FC 5:
L : To UTs
K : Elections
India and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-
M : Not apply
laws
N: continuance of
court interference
243O. ZG. -
0 : Bar on
-
:
R Composition
Q : Constitution
P: Definition
• It added a new 11th Schedule to the Constitution that • It also added the 12th Schedule to the
committees
s : (PCI
U:
Ourdan
T: Reservation
V:
W :
Gisgudification
Powe
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contains 29 functional items of the panchayats Constitution that contains 18 functional
:
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: Tax &
Account Auditing
fund y
items of Municipalities.
Appl 6 vs
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ZA
20 : Dis planul
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• Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA): For developing and strengthening the capacities of PRIs.
Continue 6 laws
If :
• e-GramSwaraj: A user-friendly web-based portal that unifies the planning, accounting, and monitoring
functions of Gram Panchayats.
• People’s Plan Campaign (PPC)-Sabki Yojana
Sabka Vikas: To draw up Gram Panchayat
Development Plans (GPDPs). --
m
I
• Backward Regions Grants Fund (BRGF):
-
districts. *
• National Institute of Rural Development and
Panchayati Raj: An#autonomous x - - -
- - -
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Sources of Finance for PRIs
Internal/Own •E Tax Revenue from Property tax on lands (other than Agriculture Land) or buildings
sources of or both; Taxes on Duties and Commodities; Service tax; Taxes on Profession Trades
revenue etc.
-• Non tax revenue from market fees on persons exporting goods for sale in
Panchayat area; Fees on Registration of Cattle sold within the Panchayat area etc.
C Transfer of Funds • Tied Grants: Earmarked for specific purposes or sectors, like sanitation,
from Central education etc.
Finance • Untied Grants (General purpose grants): These are provided without specific
Commission conditions or restrictions and can be utilised for local needs and priorities.
(CFC) and State
-
• Performance-based Grants: Additional funds granted to PRIs based on
Finance recommendations of CFCs and specific performance criteria.
Commission • Special Category Grants: These grants are additional financial support designed
(SFC)
>
- to address unique challenges or particular needs of PRIs in specific regions or
contexts.
-
Other Sources • Transfer from Central Government and State Government under different
schemes like MGNREGA, PMAY (Rural), Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana etc.
• Grants from internationals bodies like World Bank, etc.
More on news -
- -
initiatives, i.e., -
Pune.
- -
-
-
development of ULBs. -
-
across states.
-m
- -
tier of government.
-
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o The Act provided for the establishment of three types of ULBs:
✓ Nagar panchayats for a ‘transitional area’
✓ Municipal councils for a ‘smaller urban area’ and
✓ Municipal corporations for a ‘larger urban area’.
Measures taken for capacity building of ULBs.
• National Urban Digital Mission: Launched in 2021 by MoHUA, it focuses on citizen-centric digital
revolution in ULBs in India. It aims to create a shared digital infrastructure working across three pillars
of ‘People, Processes and Platform’ to provide a framework for digital governance in the country.
o National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) has been appointed to anchor this mission.
o Established in 1976, NIUA is a premier institute for research, training and information
dissemination in urban development and management.
• Municipal Bonds: These are financial instruments that municipal corporations and other associated
bodies in India issue to raise funds.
22
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Role and • GS has roles and responsibilities in approving all development works in village,
responsibility of identify beneficiaries, issue certificates of utilization of funds; powers to control
Gram sabha institutions and functionaries in all social sectors and local plans.
• Every GS to safeguard and preserve traditions and customs of people, their
cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute
resolution.
Reservation • Every panchayat to have reservation of seats in proportion to community
population (minimum of 50 percent) with Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels
to be reserved for STs.
IMP
·
- -
S --
--
3
=>
- -
- -
-
- -
-
-
2.8. OTHER IMPORTANT NEWS
Panel of Vice- • Rajya Sabha Chairman constituted an all-women panel of VCs in Rajya Sabha.
Chairpersons • Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from among the members
(VCs) a panel of VCs.
• Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman/ Deputy
Chairman.
o However, they cannot preside over the house when the seat of Chairman/ Deputy
Chairman is vacant. T
o In this case, President appoints a member of the House to perform the
-
Chairman's duties.
• He/she has the same powers as the Chairman when presiding and holds office until
a new panel of VCs is nominated.
Parliament • The Constitution of India does not mention the term “Special Session”.
Sessions o Term sometimes refers to session’s government has convened for specific
occasions.
- -
-
• Article 85 mandates that - Parliament should meet at least twice a year (the gap
between two sessions should not exceed six months).
-x
o By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- -
23
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o However, the provision does not prevent the summoning of Parliament more
often and these extra sessions are referred to as special sessions.
• The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs determines the date and duration
of parliamentary sessions.
o The president then summons MPs for the session.
Immunity for • Supreme Court (SC) held that government cannot claim immunity from application
President of law to a contract merely because one of the parties to it is the President.
,
• SC said Article 299 (contracts made by Union or State in name of President or
Rule of
10w
-
Governor) does not give the government power to break the statutory law.
-O goot •
-
the Article 361 of the Indian Constitution grants immunity or protection to the President
not of
O and the governor of the country.
- - - -
o President and the governor are immune from court scrutiny for their actions and
duties in office.
o Conduct of the President can be reviewed only if either House of Parliament
designates court or tribunal or any other body to investigate the charges under
Article 61.
Rule 176 and • According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of
Rule 267 States
o Rule 176 allows for a short-duration discussion, not exceeding two-and-a-half
hours, on a particular issue.
o Under Rule 267, a Rajya Sabha MP has the special power to suspend the pre-
decided agenda of the House, with the approval of the Chairman.
Adjournment • Moved in the Lok Sabha for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance,
motion with the Speaker’s consent.
• It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
• It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is
not permitted to make use of this device.
• Discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and
thirty minutes.
Subordinate • Committee on Subordinate legislations of Rajya Sabha released ’Delay in framing of
legislation or rules under various acts by the ministries’ report.
Delegated • Subordinate legislation is the legislation made by an authority subordinate to
Legislation legislature.
o Most enactments delegate the powers for making rules, regulations, byelaws etc.
②
to subordinate authorities like the executive.
I
-
necessity.
o Enables experts and technocrats to provide details within the framework of law.
- - - -
Council of States.
-
o Mandate: Scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers of subordinate
legislation delegated by Parliament have been properly exercised.
Parliament’s • Recently Parliament’s security was breached where accused entered Lok Sabha on
security visitors' pass and released colour gas canisters emitting yellow smoke.
breach • Restricted Access to Parliament:
o Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha deals with
- - - -
✓ It specifies that Speaker, whenever thinks fit, may order the withdrawal of
strangers from any part of the House.
24
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o Visitors to Parliament need security clearance from parliamentarians.
Sarpanch Pati • Standing Committee on Rural Development and Panchayati Raj recommended Training
and capacity building to curb prevalent concepts like Sarpanch Pati or Pradhan Pati.
o It refers to practice of husbands act as proxy for elected women, and wield the
actual political decision-making powers.
• Women reservation in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)
o 73rd Constitutional Amendment act of 1992: 1/3rd of seats of PRIs and 1/3rd
offices of Chairperson at all levels of PRIs (covered by Part IX) are reserved for
women. (Article 243 D)
o Many states like Bihar, Kerala, Maharashtra, Orissa, Rajasthan etc. have made
legal provision for 50% reservation for women among members and
Sarpanches.
o As per Women and Men in India 2022 report, of the over 31. 8 lakh ERs, nearly 46%
(over 14. 5 lakh) were women.
Quota to • Haryana Cabinet has accepted the State Backward Classes Commission’s report on
Backward proportion of reservation for Backward Classes Block-A category in ULB.
Classes (A) in • Article 243 T (6): There will be no bar on State Legislatures from making provisions for
Urban Local reservation of seats in any municipality or office of Chairperson in municipalities in
Bodies (ULBs) favor of a backward class of citizens.
-
• Triple test/conditions for reservation to OBCs in local bodies (K. Krishnamurthy v.
- Union of India, 2010),
o Set up a dedicated commission to conduct a rigorous empirical inquiry into nature
and implications of backwardness in local bodies.
o Specify the proportion of reservation required in local bodies in light of
commission’s proposals.
o Ensure reservation for SCs/STs/OBCs taken together does not exceed an
aggregate of 50 percent of total seats
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I
--
- -
3. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
3.1. ROLE OF GOVERNOR -
⑭who
2) Article
3) Governor
has
for
highest
should
order
appointment of
be from
of precedence
onbide
governor
the
? ②
Governor
-
->
state
A
-
-
②
155
? >
-
Sarkaria Comm
.
Y
-
4)
- -
criminal proceeding against in
any
court during his terms of office 2
--
-
- -
No
-
[Emolument
-
Why in the News?
terms of office ? -
=
of d iminished durin his
shall not be
certain Priceenter
consideratio
of
SendingreportorPresidentale El reservingbillsor
--
Recently, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Punjab moved the Supreme Court against their respective Governors over the
completion X
pending bills.
removed from term
6) You cannot be
15t at commencement
7) You makes customary addres at session
possible’.
-
° x
②
Reserve the bill for the • Any Bill which in the opinion of the Governor would, if it became law, so
consideration of the derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position
President which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill.
• Reserving bill for
President
(Article 201):
President can
either give
-
- -
-
#
his/her assent or
withhold the -
-
-
assent. - - - -
o President -
may direct
the Governor -
-
=
to return the T
bill to state
legislature
- - -
-
with his/her ·
message. -
-
Such bill, if
-
re-enacted by --
C
°
⑦
the state OE - -
legislature - -
with or -
T
#
- -
without
- -
- -
amendment, -
-
- -
is presented
-
- -
-
-
again to the
-
-
- -
President. -
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Prelim
F
for
Not 3.2. COOPERATIVE FEDERALISM
Why in the news?
Prime Minister recently underlined the importance of cooperative federalism in India.
About Cooperative Federalism
• Cooperative federalism is the horizontal relationship between union and states and shows neither is
above the other.
• It envisages that national and state agencies undertake government functions jointly rather than exclusively.
Constitutional Provisions to Promote Cooperative Federalism in India
-
-• 7th schedule which demarcates central, state, and concurrent lists based on the principle of subsidiarity.
• All India Services under Article 312
-
• Integrated judicial system to enforce both states as well as central laws.
-
• Inter-State Council under Article 263 to discuss and investigate the subject of common interest between
-
the centre and the states.
-• Article 261 provides that full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to all the public
acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and every State.
• Zonal councils were established as statutory bodies under the State Reorganization Act of 1956 to ensure
-
coordination.
• Article 280: Finance Commission for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the
1
Union and the States.
•
- Article 279A: GST Council (involving members from Union and states), responsible for deciding the rates
of the GST and the modalities of its implementation.
Steps Taken to foster Cooperative federalism in India
• The share of states in central tax revenue has been increased from 32% to 42% after the - -
• Financial sector bailout programme under Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) scheme. -
• National Institution for Transforming India Aayog (NITI) Aayog acts as a platform to promote cooperative
- -
o Launching of the Aspirational Districts Programme for the development of backward districts.
- - % °
o Framing model laws for land leasing and agriculture marketing reforms
-
o Area-specific interventions for the North-Eastern and Himalayan States and island development.
o Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) programme to initiate transformation in
-
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o Between two or more States.
• Inter-state Council: Article 263 gives powers to theE President to set up an Inter-state Council for the
resolution of disputes between states. It has the duty of:
o Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States;
o Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all the States, or the Union have a common
interest; or
o Making recommendations on such subjects along with recommendations for the better coordination
of policy and action to that subject.
• Zonal Councils: They are established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 and have an advisory role
to promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre.
28
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Zonal Councils
• Chairperson: Union Home Minister.
I
• 5 Zonal councils viz:
-o Northern: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Delhi, Chandigarh,
Ladakh
o Central: Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
1
o Eastern: Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal
-
-o Western: Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
-o Southern: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Telangana A&N, Lakshadweep and
Puducherry.
T
3.4. INTER-STATE WATER DISPUTES Distributaries ,
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the terms of reference to Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-II (KWDT-II)
under the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956.
Also, the Supreme Court criticised the Punjab government for its slow progress in constructing the Sutlej-
Yamuna Link (SYL) canal,
Mechanism to deal with Inter-State Water Dispute
• Under Seventh Schedule of Constitution,
o State List: Entry 17 (Water i.e. water supplies, irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments, water
storage etc.) subject to the provisions of entry 56 of List I.
• Article 262: Parliament by law may provide for the adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use,
distribution or control over inter-state river waters or river valley. Accordingly, Parliament has enacted
two laws:
o Inter-State Water
Disputes (ISWD)
Act, 1956: State
Government may
request the
Central
Government to
refer the dispute
to a tribunal for
adjudication.
o River Boards Act,
1956: Setting up of
River Boards by
the central
government for
the regulation and
development of
inter-state rivers
and river valleys.
• Article 262 deters the
Supreme Court from
adjudicating
interstate river water
disputes.
o However, Article
136 empowers the SC to hear appeals against the tribunal’s orders.
29
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• National Water Policy 2012: Addresses issues of water scarcity, inequities in its distribution and lack of
a unified perspective in water use and management.
o Union List: Entry 56 (Regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys)
• In the context of inter-state rivers water sharing, SC had earlier referred to international rules like,
o Helsinki Rules of 1966 recognise equitable use of water by each basin State taking into consideration
the socio-economic needs and availability of resources.
o Campione Consolidation of ILA Rules (1966-99) advocates the inclusion of water of an aquifer, that is
underground water or 'fossil water' intercepted by the boundary between two or more states, while
determining the shares of basin states over an inter-state river.
About SYL canal
• SYL, planned in 1966, is a 214-km long canal for sharing waters of the Ravi and Beas rivers between
Haryana and Punjab, of which 122 km was to be in Punjab and 92 km in Haryana.
• Haryana completed its stretch of the SYL Canal in 1980, while Punjab kept citing Riparian Principles
and the non-availability of its water.
o Riparian Principles state that the owner of land adjacent to a water body has the right to use water.
About Krishna Water Dispute
• In 1969, Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-I (KWDT) was set up under the ISRWD Act, 1956 and KWDT-II
was instituted in 2004
• KWDT-II will distribute the Krishna water, allocated to 'undivided’ Andhra Pradesh, between Telangana
and Andhra Pradesh.
o Krishna is an east-flowing river that originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and merges with
the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• In 2014 after the creation of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh asked to include Telangana as a separate
party at KWDT.
o However, Maharashtra and Karnataka argue that Telangana should be allocated waters from
Andhra Pradesh’s share as it was created following latter’s bifurcation.
30
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4. JUDICIARY
4.1. JUDICIAL APPOINTMENT
T
Why in the News?
Supreme Court while hearing a contempt case against inordinate delay by the Centre in judges’ appointment,
said that appointment proposals can’t remain in limbo and the government must either notify those
appointments or send them back citing specific objections.
Appointment of judges in higher judiciary
• Judges are appointed through a Collegium (Articles 124 (2) and 217 governs the appointment of Judges in
SC and HC respectively)
• It has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court (referred to as 3 Judges Cases and pronounced in
1981, 1993, and 1998).
o Supreme Court Collegium includes CJI and four other senior-most judges of the court at that time.
⑭
o Collegium for the appointment of Judges to the High Court is led by the CJI and two other senior-most
↳
- -
- °
- - - - -
- - -
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4.1.1. ALL INDIA JUDICIAL SERVICES (AIJS)
Why in the news?
Recently during the Constitution Day (26th November) celebration, the President of India called for an All India
Judicial Services (AIJS) to recruit judges.
About All India Judicial Service (AIJS)
AIJS is a reform that seeks to centralize the recruitment of judges at the level of additional district judges
and district judges for all states.
• Genesis of AIJS: The idea for AIJS was first proposed by the 14th Report of the Law Commission of India
on judicial reforms in 1958.
• Constitutionality: The provision of AIJS was included in Article 312 of the Constitution through the 42nd
Amendment in 1976. But it still requires a bill to decide on its broad contours.
Present status of recruitment of judges in lower judiciary
• Articles 233 and 234 of the Constitution of India deal with the appointment of district judges (along
with lower judiciary) and place it in the domain of the states.
• All judges of the lower judiciary up to the level of district judges are selected through the Provincial
Civil Services (Judicial) exam in most of the states.
• The selection process is conducted by the State Public Service Commissions and the concerned
High Court, as High Courts exercise jurisdiction over the subordinate judiciary in the state.
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The President of India recently granted assent to the passed Mediation Act 2023 seeking to promote mediation
as a preferred mode of Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) in India.
About Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)
• It refers to the different ways people can resolve disputes without a trial (refer infographics).
• Other steps to promote ADR in India
o Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2019 for
the establishment of the Arbitration Council of India.
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o Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
o New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) Act, 2019 for the establishment of NDIAC for
facilitating institutional arbitration.
o Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for such Commercial Courts to adjudicate commercial
disputes.
• Singapore Convention on Mediation is a uniform and efficient framework for international settlement
agreements resulting from mediation.
--
-
o Powers: Have the same powers as are vested in a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure (1908).
✓ Decisions/Awards are final and binding on all parties. No Appeal shall lie to any Court against its
comp-promise
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4.4. MODEL PRISONS ACT 2023 can't
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The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has prepared the ‘Model Prisons Act 2023’ that will replace the Prisons Act
of 1894.
What proposals are included under the Model Prisons Act 2023?
• To encourage good conduct
o Provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners.
✓ Parole is a system of conditional release of a prisoner with suspension of the sentence for a
specific period.
✓ Furlough is given in cases of long-term imprisonment. The period of furlough granted to a prisoner
is treated as remission (reduction) of his sentence.
✓ Bail means procurement of release from prison of a person awaiting trial or an appeal.
• For reformation and rehabilitation
o Bring about “attitudinal change towards prisoners.”
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Vo Vocational training and skill development.
• For better safety and security
Xo Separate accommodation for women and transgender inmates.
o Use of technology in prison
- administration;
-
Establishing high-
security jails.
• Other measures
o Provisions for and open, semi-open jails
have also been inserted. --
o Measures for prisoners to video
conference with courts have also been
introduced.
• Along with the - Prisons Act, 1894, the
Prisoners Act, 1900, and the Transfer of Prisoners Act, 1950’ have also been reviewed, and their relevant
⑦°
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-
About Prisons Act 1894
• It was the first legislation that governed the management and administration of prisons in India.
• It is based on recommendations of the “Prison Discipline Committee” appointed by Lord
Macaulay (1936).
X (1836)
• It defined a “prison” as “any jail or place used permanently or temporarily for the detention of prisoners”,
excluding police custody and subsidiary jails.
• It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits.
-
- x
I - -
- -
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4.5. OTHER IMPORTANT NEWS
Article 142 • SC held that it could, under Article 142, directly grant divorce, in cases where
marriage has irretrievably broken down, dispensing with period prescribed under
Hindu Marriage Act (HMA), 1955.
• Article 142 provides SC power, to do “complete justice” between parties, where,
at times, law or statute may not provide a remedy.
• While powers under Article 142 are sweeping in nature, SC has defined its scope
and extent through various judgments.
T
Doctrine of • In a hearing related to Agnipath scheme, plaintiff (party moving court in a civil
Promissory action) cited doctrine of promissory estoppel.
Estoppel • Promissory estoppel is a concept developed in contractual laws.
o It essentially prevents a “promisor” from backing out of an agreement on the
grounds that there is no “consideration.”
o It is invoked by a plaintiff to ensure execution of a contract or seek
compensation for failure to perform the contract.
Narco Analysis • Recently, wrestler protestors in Delhi have asked to undergo Narco tests provided it
Test is monitored by the Supreme Court.
• As part of a narco test, sodium pentothal, also called ‘truth serum’, is injected into
a person which lowers a person’s self-consciousness, allowing them to speak
without inhibition.
• The Supreme Court in Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010) ruled that
narco analysis, brain mapping and polygraph tests cannot be conducted on any
person without his or her consent.
o The judgement was based in view of
✓ Article 20(3) (Right against self-incrimination)
✓ Article 21 (Right to life and personal liberty).
• Narco analysis report is not admissible as primary evidence in the court.
• However, any information that is subsequently discovered with the help of
voluntarily administered test results can be admitted.
Recusal by • Supreme Court (SC) judge refused to
Judges recuse himself from hearing a plea
by a former Indian Police Service (IPS)
officer.
• Whenever there is a potential
conflict of interest, a judge can
recuse or withdraw from a case to
prevent the perception of being
biased.
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• India has no codified rules governing recusals and the decision to recuse rests
solely on the conscience and discretion of the judge.
o If a judge recuses himself, the case is listed before the Chief Justice for
allotment to an alternate Bench.
Advocate-on- • AoR is a lawyer in the Indian legal system who is registered and authorized by SC
Record (AoR) to represent clients in that court.
system in • The Advocates Act provides two kinds of advocates i.e., Senior Advocates and
Supreme Court advocates.
• However, the SC in the exercise of its rule-making power under Article 145, made a
provision for AoR system.
• Supreme Court Rules, 2013 prescribe eligibility criteria for an AoR.
o Only AoR is entitled to file any matter or document before the SC.
o Senior Advocate is not entitled to appear without AoR in SC.
Fast Track • Union Cabinet approved continuation of Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) Scheme
Special Courts until March 31, 2026.
(FTSCs) Scheme • Launched in 2019, FSTCs is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme and implemented by
Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.
o Central Share is to be funded from Nirbhaya Fund, aimed at enhancing the
safety and security for women.
• FTSCs, designed as dedicated courts, were established for hearing rape and
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) cases.
o Enactment of Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2018, which included stringent
punishment, including death penalty for rape offenders, led to the creation of
FTSCs.
o FTSCs are linked to National Judicial Data Grid.
Nari Adalats • Nari Adalat is a part of Sambal sub-scheme under Mission Shakti, which operates
under Ministry of Women and Child Development.
o Mission Shakti aims to strengthen women’s safety, security, and empowerment.
• Nari Adalat provides women with an Alternate Grievance Redressal Mechanism
for resolving cases of petty nature (harassment, curtailment of rights etc.) faced by
women at Gram Panchayat level.
• This platform will be utilized for engaging with public for awareness generation,
getting feedback for improvement in schemes and for effective public delivery of
service.
Nyaya Vikas • Nyaya Vikas Portal has been created by Ministry of Law and Justice for monitoring
Portal the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) for development of
Infrastructure for Judiciary.
• About Nyaya Vikas &
o Department of Justice has been implementing CSS for Development of
Infrastructure Facilities for Districts and Subordinate Judiciary since 1993-94.
o Central assistance is provided to the State Government / UT Administrations for
construction of court halls and residential units for Judicial Officers / Judges
of District, etc.
o Funding: Northeastern and Himalayan States (90:10); Union Territories (100%),
remaining states (60:40).
Justice Clocks • It is an electronic signage system which have been installed across the court
complexes of High Courts.
• The initiative will inform stakeholders about court-related key parameters and
bring awareness among public by providing bird eye view of court-related data.
Technology in • Supreme Court (SC) issued directions to all the High Courts for ensuring
Judiciary digitalisation of lower court records.
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• Other initiatives taken
o e-Court mission: a mission mode project for digitisation of judiciary.
o Inter-operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) to enable seamless transfer of
data and information among stakeholders like courts, police, jails.
o Fast and Secure Transmission of Electronic Records (FASTER) by SC, a
software to transmit Court Orders swiftly, and securely through electronic mode.
o SUVAS (Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software) to translate English
judgments into regional language.
o e-SCR portal: It provides the digital version of the apex court's judgments in
the same manner they are reported in the official law report.
India Justice • The third edition of the report was released by Tata Trusts in collaboration with
Report representatives from several civil society organizations including the Centre for
Social Justice, DAKSH, Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy, etc.
• The report assesses and ranks each state’s progress in capacitating its major
justice delivery mechanisms—the judiciary, police, prisons, and legal aid.
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5. ELECTIONS
5.1. CHIEF ELECTION COMMISSIONER AND OTHER ELECTION
COMMISSIONERS ACT, 2023
Why in the news?
-
-The President gave her assent to the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023.
Key provisions of the Act
Appointment •
The CEC and other ECs shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation
of a Selection Committee.
Selection • A selection committee consisting of:
committee o Prime Minister as Chairperson.
-Leader of Opposition/leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.
-
o- - - - -
• Search Committee: Headed by the Minister of Law and Justice shall prepare a panel
of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee.
Eligibility • Persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the
criteria Government of India and
• Should be persons of integrity, who have knowledge of and experience in
management and conduct of elections.
Salary • Equal to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court -
Term of • CEC and other ECs shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he
office assumes his office or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. Later
- - -
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5.2. ASPECTS OF ELECTION PROCESS AND REFORM
Why in the news?
Recently, the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law
and Justice tabled a report on “Specific aspects of the election process and their reform”.
Key-aspects of the report
Common •
India has two types of electoral rolls, i.e. General electoral rolls (overseen by ECI) and
Electoral Roll Separate electoral rolls (prepared by SEC).
(CER) • Constitutional and legal safeguards
o Article 324(1): It empowered the Election Commission of India to supervise, direct,
and control the preparation and revision of Electoral Rolls for all elections to
Parliament and State Legislatures.
o Articles 243K and 243ZA: Entrust the State Election Commissioners with the task
of overseeing the preparation and revision of electoral rolls for Local Body
elections.
o Representation of the People Act, 1950: The preparation and revision of electoral
rolls for Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies are governed under the
provisions contained in PART IIB Section 13D.
False Legal safeguards
Declarations • Candidates contesting elections must file an Affidavit in Form 26 under the Conduct of
During Filing Elections Rules, 1961.
of • Section 33A under ↳ RPA, 1951: Requires candidates to disclose information about bec8
Nomination charges framed by a court against them for offences punishable by more than* two years
for Elections imprisonment and any convictions resulting in imprisonment of one year or more.
• Section 125A of the Representation of People Act of 1951: Deals with the penalties for
- - -
Minimum Age ↳ Constitutional Safeguards for Minimum Age for Contesting Elections
O
of Voting and • Article 84: Minimum 25 years in Lok Sabha and
---
O 30 years in Rajya Sabha.
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Contesting
Elections
• O
Article 173: Minimum 25 years in State Legislative Assemblies and 30 years in
legislative Council.
- - O
--
particular
constituency vote for - - - -
E
• Simultaneous elections
were the norm until
②
⑳
1967. Following the - -
E
dissolution of some - -
Legislative Assemblies in - -
1968 and 1969 and that of Lok Sabha in 1970, elections to State Assemblies and Parliament have been held
separately.
• Later, the Simultaneous elections idea was proposed by the Election Commission in 1983.
• It was also recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee.
*
5.4. CRIMINALIZATION OF POLITICS
Why in the News? Various Commission/committees on Criminalization of
Recently a report titled ‘Analysis of Sitting politics
MPs from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha of • N.N. Vohra Committee Report (1993) state that the
India 2023’ was released. nexus between the criminal gangs, police, bureaucracy
and politicians has come out clearly in various parts of
More about News
the country.
• The report was released by the • Other Commissions: National Commission to Review
Association for Democratic Reforms the Working of the Constitution (2001), Second
(ADR) and National Election Watch. Administrative Reforms Commission (2005), etc.
o ADR was established in 1999 by a
group of professors from the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad.
• Kerala has the highest number of MPs with criminal cases followed by Bihar, and Maharashtra.
• Criminalization of Politics (CoP) refers to the infiltration of criminals, lawbreakers, and corrupt individuals
into the political system.
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5.5. ELECTORAL FUNDING
Why in the news?
Recently, the Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to submit data on the electoral bonds
received by political parties till September 30, 2023.
More on news
• In 2019, while hearing the Association for Democratic Reforms’ (ADR) petition against the Electoral
Bond Scheme, the SC asked the ECI to submit data on electoral bonds received by political parties.
o State Bank of India has revealed that only 25 political parties have opened the bank accounts
necessary to receive electoral bonds.
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V
Electoral Bonds (EBs)
• EBs are interest-free bearer bonds or money instruments that can be purchased by companies and
individuals in India from authorised branches of the State Bank of India (SBI).
• Announced in Union Budget 2017-2018.
• Sold in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore.
• Purchased through a KYC-compliant account to make donations to a political party.
• No cap on the number of EBs that a person or company can purchase.
• Available for purchase for 10 days each in January, April, July and October. Quarter 1 More th
• All transactions of EBs are carried out via cheques or digitally.=> no i
• The identity of donors remains confidential, reducing the risk of retaliation or intimidation for their
political affiliations.
⑭
(NPP) and Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
• How is a Party’s National status decided?
o Votes in Lok Sabha (LS), state polls: A party should secure at least 6% of votes
polled in four or more states in LS or assembly elections, and, in addition, have
at least four members in LS.
o Seats in LS: It should have at least 2% of total Lok Sabha seats and have
candidates from not less than three states.
o Must be a state party: in at least four states.
• Benefits of National Party Status
o Exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to its candidates throughout
India.
o Need only one person to propose a candidate’s name to file nominations.
o Get broadcast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during general
elections.
o Can have up to 40-star campaigners while others can have up to 20-star
campaigners.
Star • Election Commission of India issues advisory to all Star to remain within the
Campaigners confines of the Model Code of Conduct
• About Star Campaigners
o They are nominated by political parties to campaign in each set of
constituencies for a specified duration.
---
o There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner.
o List of star campaigners must be communicated to Chief Electoral Officer and
ECI within a week from election notification date under section 77(1) of
Representation of People Act (RPA), 1951.
o Recognised political party can have 40 Star campaigners and an
unrecognised (but registered) political party can have 20.
o Poll Expenditure: As per section 77(1) RPA, 1951, their travel by air or any
other means of transport for propagating programme of a political party shall
not be counted as expenditure by candidate.
Freebies • Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) issues Standard Operating
Procedure (SoP) to limit the usage of freebies, and liquor to attract voters.
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O Freebies can be defined as offerings/distribution of irrational offerings from
o
political parties as part of electoral promises such as pressure cookers, washing
machines, television sets etc. free of charge.
• SoP aims to prevent suspicious cash, illicit liquor, drugs/narcotics, freebies and
smuggled goods during assembly and general elections.
• Key highlights of SoP
o GST and Customs officials to monitor the distribution of coupon-based or
free fuel or cash for alluring prospective voters.
o Setting up flying squads and static surveillance teams for vehicle checks and
verification of warehouses.
o Movement of items like saris, party flags etc., associated with candidates or
political parties without an e-way bill may be confiscated.
Poll Expenditure • Declaring Candidates for assembly election weeks before polls announcement
has exposed gaps in Election Commission (EC) poll expenditure monitoring
rules.
o Rules stipulate accounting of candidates’ spending from date of their
nomination and not from the announcement of polls.
O
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• According to Section 77 (1) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951,
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-To lakh -95 lakh
- - -
Electoral • Recently, ECI signed an MoU with the Ministry of Education to bring Electoral
Literacy Literacy to Classrooms across the country.
• Salient features of
MoU
o Systematically
integrating voter
education and
electoral literacy
into the
curriculum,
starting from
classes 6 to 12 in all
schools.
• Initiatives taken to promote Electoral Literacy
-
o Systematic Voter Education and Electoral Participation =
- - --
(SVEEP) program: -
Flagship program of ECI for voter education, spreading voter awareness and
--
-
promoting voter literacy in India.
o Electoral Literacy Clubs (ELCs): set up in institute campuses across the
- country by- ECI under SVEEP campaign.
✓ It is a platform to engage school students through interesting activities and
sensitise them on their electoral rights and familiarise them with electoral
process of registration and voting.
Enabling • Election Commission has designed in-house software for complete Candidate
and election management throughO
--
Communications ‘ENCORE’.
- -
>
-
on Real-time o It is an end-to-end application for returning officers to digitize the votes
Environment
- -
polled, tabulate the round-wise data, and then take out various statutory
- -
(ENCORE)
-
reports of counting.
- -
online.
- -
- -
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• Through the ENCORE Nodal App, various departments like fire, education, police,
environment, etc. give ‘no objection’ certificates for holding rallies, road shows,
-
etc. to political parties or candidates.
Voter-Verifiable • The Election Commission of India (EC) has defended the EVM-VVPAT system and
Paper Audit Trail termed a new petition seeking 100% data cross verification as regressive.
.
(VVPAT) • Rule 56D and Rule 49MA of Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, provide for
redressal of any EVM-VVPAT process verification-related concerns expressed by a
voter.
- view [
-
•
name & symbol of chosen candidate.
-
- O
VVPAT allows voters to see a printed slip for 7 seconds showing the serial number,
- -
-
I
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6. IMPORTANT LEGISLATIONS/BILLS
6.1. NARI SHAKTI VANDAN [CONSTITUTION (106TH AMENDMENT)]
-
X
ACT, 2023
Why in the News?
Recently, Parliament passed the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, to provide for one-third
reservation to women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and the assembly of NCT of Delhi.
Key provisions of the Act
• Articles amended
L
o Article 239AA: Reservation of 1/3rd seats for
women in the Legislative Assembly of Delhi.
• Articles inserted
o Article 330A and Article 332A: Reservation
of 1/3rd seats for women in the Lok Sabha
and State legislative assembly
respectively.
✓ It also includes reservation of 1/3rd
seats for women under seats reserved
for SCs/STs under Article 330 and Article
332.
o Article 334A: The Act’s provisions shall
come into effect after delimitation following
the first census after the commencement of
this act.
✓ Sunset clause: Reservation of seats for women shall cease to have effect after the expiration of 15
years. However, it can be extended by the Parliament by law.
- -
>
-
- ⑭
-
-
Election Authority
-
- -
o National Multi-State Cooperative Organic Society -
-
- -
O
-
- --
• Amalgamation and division of co-operative societies: Allows co-operative societies (registered under
- -
-
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•
Co-operative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and Development Fund: To revive sick multi-state co-
operative societies. -
-
• Restriction on redemption of government shareholding: Any shares held by the central and state
governments cannot be redeemed without the shareholder’s approval. ② 3
-
-
• Redressal of complaints: the central government will appoint one or more Co-operative Ombudsman -
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TKey provisions of the Act
Specifications Details
Age-Based • Act introduces three age-
Certification based certifications
under ‘UA’ category —’UA
"O
7+’, ‘UA 13+’ and ‘UA 16+’.
• These age-based markers
are meant for parents or
guardians to consider
whether their children
should view such a film. separate certificate of TV
• These are only recommendatory.
-
>
-
- -
- -
Separate certificate • Films with an ‘A’ or ‘S’ certificate will require a separate certificate for
for television/other exhibition on television, or any other media prescribed by the central
media government.
Certificates validity • Certificates will be perpetually valid as opposed to the present validity of 10
years.
Revisional powers • The Act omits section 6(1) of the Act as directed by Supreme Court in Union of
of central India vs KM Shankarappa Case, 2000 whichC states that Centre cannot exercise
government -
revisional powers on films already certified by the CBFC. P
Makes film piracy a • The Act prohibits the unauthorised recording and unauthorised exhibition of films
punishable offence and makes it a punishable offence under the provisions of Copyright Act,
1957.
Penalty • Categorises piracy as a criminal offence, imposing penalties of up to three years
in prison, a fine amounting to five per cent of the film's production cost, or
both.
-
• It offers viewers access to movies, TV shows and
other media directly through the Internet, bypassing
cable or satellite systems.
-
• In India’s regulatory parlance, OTT platforms are
E
called ‘publishers of online curated content’. -
- - -
-
- Technology Act 2000, Indian Penal Code 1860, and
Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act
1986 have been made applicable to the content -
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o Rules gave the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (I&B) the task of regulating content on OTT
and online platforms.
o Code of Ethics for online news, OTT platforms and digital media: This Code of Ethics prescribe the
guidelines to be followed by OTT platforms and online news and digital media entities.
o Self-Classification of Content: OTT platforms would self-classify the content into five age-based
categories.
-U (Universal) U/A 7+ U/A 13+ U/A 16+ A (Adult) COTP (Cigarettes and Other
Tobacco Products) film rules
o Parental locks: Platforms would be required to implement
Under these rules, now all OTT
parental locks for content classified as U/A 13+ or higher, and
platforms have to display static
reliable age verification mechanisms for content classified as “A”.
messages and audio-visual
o Co-Regulation Approach: India’s approach to OTT regulation can
disclaimers on the ill effects of
be termed asC a light-touch ‘co-regulation’ model where there is
tobacco use
‘self-regulation’ at the industry level and final ‘oversight
JMAINS/INTERVIEW
mechanism’ at the Ministry level. -
Specifications Details
Applicability • Processing of digital personal data within India:
o in digital form or
o in non-digital form and digitised subsequently.
• Processing of personal data outside India if it is for offering goods or services in
India.
• Does not apply to:
o Personal data processed for any personal purpose.
o Personal data that is made or caused to be made publicly available by-
✓ Data Principal to whom such personal data relates; or
✓ any other person who is under legal obligation to make such personal data
publicly available.
Consent • Personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose after obtaining the consent
of the Data Principal (who shall have the right to withdraw consent at any time).
o Consent will not be required for ‘legitimate uses’ including the provision of
benefits or services by the government, medical emergency etc.
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•
For a child or a person with a disability, consent will be provided by the parent or legal
guardian.
Data • Provides for the establishment of DPBI by the Central government.
Protection • Key functions of the Board:
Board of India o Monitoring compliance and imposing penalties.
(DPBI) o Directing data fiduciaries to take necessary measures in event of a data breach.
o Hearing grievances made by affected persons.
• Board members will be appointed for two years and will be eligible for re-
appointment.
•
- Appeals against its decisions will lie with the Telecom Disputes Settlement and
- Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
Rights and • Data principal will have the right to-
Duties of Data o Obtain information about processing.
Principal o Seek correction and erasure of personal data.
o Grievance redressal.
o Right to nominate a person to exercise rights in case of death or incapacity.
• Data principals must not register a false or frivolous complaint and furnish any false
particulars.
• Violation of duties will be punishable with a penalty of up to Rs 10,000.
Obligations of • Data Fiduciary (Entity determining the purpose and means of processing) must-
Data o Ensure the accuracy and completeness of data.
Fiduciaries o Build reasonable security safeguards to prevent a data breach.
o Inform DPBI and affected persons in the event of a breach.
o Erase personal data as soon as the purpose has been met and retention is not
necessary for legal purposes.
Significant • Central Government may notify any Data Fiduciary as SDF, based on factors such as:
Data o Volume and sensitivity of personal data processed.
-
Fiduciaries o Risk to the rights of data principal
-
(SDF) o Potential impact on the sovereignty and integrity of India
-
o Security of the State
-
o Risk to electoral democracy
-
o Public order
-
• SDF will have certain additional obligations including appointing a data protection
officer and an independent data auditor and undertaking impact assessment.
Exemptions • Rights of the data principal and obligations of data fiduciaries (except data security) will
not apply in specified cases, including:
o For-
- notified agencies, in the interest of security, sovereignty, public order, etc.;
o For
- ⑳research, archiving or statistical purposes;
o ForE
- start-ups or other notified categories of Data Fiduciaries;
o To enforce legal rights and claims;- -
-
and
o tracking,r behavioural monitoring, or targeted advertising.
Cross-border • Bill allows the transfer of personal data outside India, except to countries restricted
transfer by the government.
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financelineis prisee e
=
Penalties •
Gode Act specifies penalties for various offences such as up to Rs 200 crore for non-
fulfilment of obligations for children, and Rs 250 crore for failure to take security
measures to prevent data breaches.
I ⑭
>
-
6.4.1. DIGITAL SERVICES ACT
Why in the news?
The European Union (EU) has confirmed the names of 19 platforms that will be subject to its online content rules
under the Digital Services Act (DSA).
About Digital Services Act (DSA)
• DSA is a first-of-a-kind regulatory toolbox globally and sets a benchmark for a regulatory approach to
online intermediaries.
• In 2020, DSA together with Digital Markets Act (DMA)-proposed a comprehensive framework to ensure a
-
safer, fairer digital space (will be applicable from 2024). L
o DSA affects gatekeeper platforms like Google, Amazon and Meta, and covers the need for user
consent before processing personal data for targeted advertising. I X
Difference between the EU’s DSA and--
India’s IT Rules, 2021
Key -
-India’s IT Rules (Information Technology
Provisions Rules, 2021)
-
- O
EU’s DSA
② O
I
Scope Apply to social media intermediaries, digital DSA applies to a wider range of online
news publishers, and OTT platforms operating platforms, including social media, online
in India, irrespective of their country. marketplaces, and cloud computing
-
-
⑭me x
services operating in EU, irrespective of
-
their country. E
Content Rules require social media intermediaries to DSA proposes a range of compliance
-
Moderation appoint a grievance officer, a nodal officer, requirements for online platforms,
rie
Main
-
-
and a chief compliance officer, and establish a including content moderation measures,
mechanism for receiving and resolving transparency obligations, and data
-
Muslim law, customary law -o Also criminalizes sexual intercourse with a woman by
-
• Draft of Penal Code (1837) • It removes the offence of sedition, and instead penalizes the
-
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• Effect of 1857 Rebellion: IPC o Exciting or attempting to excite secession, armed rebellion, or
was finally enacted in 1860. subversive activities.
• Post enactment of IPC 1860: o Encouraging feelings of separatist activities, or
o Several Law Commission o Endangering the sovereignty or unity and integrity of India.
reports have • It defines organized crime as any continuing unlawful activity
m
- recommended
amendments to the IPC
including kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, land grabbing,
cybercrime etc.
↳
Topic in MAINS
-
on subjects including • Murder or grievous hurt by a group: on the grounds of race, caste
offences against or community, sex, place of birth, language, or personal belief
women, food each member of such group shall be punished with,
adulteration, death o Death or life imprisonment, and a fine, in case of murder.
penalty etc. o Imprisonment for a term of up to seven years, and a fine, in case
of grievous hurt.
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o The Act adds that a trial of multiple persons, where an accused has
absconded or has not responded to an arrest warrant, will be
treated as a joint trial.
Special and Local Laws (SLL)
• Recent tabling of Bills on criminal laws has kept Special and Local Laws (SLL) away from the ongoing
reform process.
Magistrate
&
-
= • Cognizable crimes are broadly categorized as those falling either under the `Indian Penal Code (IPC)' or
more
order under the Special and Local Laws (SLL)'
o Cognizable offence is defined as the one which an officer in charge of a police station may investigate
without the order of a magistrate and effect arrest without warrant.
• About Special and Local Laws (SLL)
o A “special law” is a law applicable to a particular subject covering specific issues.
✓ Example: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA).
-o A “local law” is a law applicable only to a particular part of India.
✓ Example: Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act (MCOCA), 1999
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6.7. PRESS AND REGISTRATION OF E
PERIODICALS ACT, 2023
Why in the news?
The President has granted assent to the Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 repealing the colonial
era law of the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867.
Background of The Press and Registration of Books Act 1867
•
Censorship of Press Act of 1799 (under Lord Wellesley): To silence the press before a potential French
invasion of India. However, it was retracted in 1818 by Lord Hastings.
• Licensing Regulations (ordinance), 1823 (under John Adams): The Ordinance had a draconian provision
that no one could start or continue to use a press without registration.
o Rammohan Roy’s, Mirat- ul-Akbar had to cease publication due to this act.
• Press Act of 1835 (under Metcalfe): This Act was seen as a ray of liberation and thus earned Metcalfe the
respectable title of "Liberator of the Indian Press.
o As a consequence, the Indian vernacular press saw rapid growth across India between 1835 and 1857.
• The Licensing Act of 1857: Due to the "Revolt of 1857", this Act emerged, which imposed "licensing
restrictions" in addition to the pre-existing "registration procedure". =
I Press and Registration of Books (PRB) Act 1867 (under -
• John Lawrence): The Act made it mandatory for
every article of print to have the names of the printers, publishers, and the places of publication, printed.
• Further Amendments: The Act was amended many times between 1870 and 1983 but it remained
- - -
procedurally cumbersome and complex, especially for small and medium publishers.
Key provisions of PRP Act, 2023
Key provisions Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023
Registration of • Periodicals- -1
do not include books
-
or scientific and academic journals. Books are
-
printing online application with the Press Registrar General (PRG) and specified local
-
presses authority. -
Registration of • The PRP act, 2023 allows for information regarding printing presses to be
a printing press submitted through an online portal.
Penalties • The 2023 Act seeks to decriminalize the colonial-era statute by replacing jail terms
with fines.
Cancelling
Registration
-
• The PRP Act 2023 empowers the Press Registrar General to suspend/cancel the
Certificate of Registration.
• Also, a person who has been↳ convicted of a terrorist act or unlawful activity or has
- - -
acted against the security of the State will not be allowed to publish a periodical.
- - - - - - -
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Key Provisions of the Act
Key provisions Telecommunications Act 2023
Assignment of • Spectrum allocation will be through ↳
-
auction and for specified uses on an°
⑦
*
activities
Regulation of • OTT platform will not be regulated under the Telecommunications Act 2023.
OTTs
Other Provisions • Digital Bharat Nidhi: The Bill renames the Universal Service Obligation fund as
Digital Bharat Nidhi and allows its use for research and development in telecom
sector.
• Trusted sources regime: Which came into being after the 2020 Indo–Chinese
border skirmishes, to stop imports of telecom equipment from hostile nations
is now part of the law.
• Currently, the suspension of telecom services (including internet shutdowns) is governed by Temporary
Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency & Public Safety) Rules, 2017, notified under the -
-
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o 2017 Rules provide for a temporary shutdown of telecom services in a region on grounds of public
emergency - -
(up to 15 days at once).
- - -
Oo
o The law empowers senior bureaucrats from the home ministry and Centre and state levels to order
shutdowns.
E
• Key Guidelines proposed by SC in Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India case (2010)
o An order suspending internet services indefinitely is impermissible under the Temporary
- -
#
Advocates • The Act, passed by parliament, seeks to make the- O
3
act of ‘Tout’ punishable and
(Amendment) Act, repeal certain provisions of Legal Practitioners Act, 1879 which have become
2023 obsolete.
• Provisions
o It provides that every high court and district judge can frame and publish
Ilists of touts.
-
I
o Such persons named in the list of touts will be excluded from entering the
court premises.
-
- -
E
-
Inquiry Act, 1952 Inquiry Act, 1952, to inquire into incidents of violence in Manipur.
-
(FCRA)
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• FCRA was enacted during Emergency in 1976 to regulate foreign donations to
S - - -
funds, and “to prohibit” their use for “any activities detrimental to
>
- national interest”.
• ②
Law was amended again in 2020, giving the government tighter control and
-
• In 2017, The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act was enacted which
allows transfer of enemy property from the enemy to other persons.
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X 7. IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL/STATUTORY/
EXECUTIVE BODIES IN NEWS
7.1. LOKPAL
Why in the News? Lokayuktas
A high-level search committee has extended the date for • Lokayuktas are state equivalents of
receiving applications for the posts of >
chairperson and central Lokpal.
·
members of the anti-corruption ombudsman Lokpal. o Some States already have
established Lokayuktas. For
About Lokpal example, Maharashtra in 1971, and
• In 1966, the term ‘Lokpal-Lokayukta’, coined by L. M. Kerala in 1999.
Singhvi, was first used in a report of the Administrative • They shall have jurisdiction over CM,
Reforms Commission. Ministers, MLAs, all state government
• Lokpal is a national anti-corruption ombudsman to look employees and certain private entities
into complaints against public servants which are defined (including religious institutions).
under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
• According to the E
Act, there shall be a director of inquiry, not below the rank of joint secretary, who shall be
----
appointed by the government
o to conduct preliminary inquiriesc
-
referred to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) by the Lokpal. - -
o Though Lokpal came into being in 2019, director of inquiry has not yet been appointed.
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
Specifications Details
Composition • Lokpal consists of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50%
shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.
Tenure of • Chairperson and members of Lokpal are appointed for term of five years or until
office attaining age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Selection • Chairperson and Lokpal Members shall be appointed by President on
Committee recommendations of a SC.
(SC) --o Selection Committee constitute Prime Minister (Chairperson), LS Speaker,
Leader of Opposition, CJI (or his nominee) and eminent jurist (nominated by
President based on recommendation of other members of panel).
Y As per Lokpal Act of 2013, Department of Personnel and Training needs to create
o - - -
Lokpal.
-
-
-
Timelines for •
60 days for completion of inquiry and 6 months for completion of investigation by
enquiry, CBI.
investigation • This period of 6 months can be extended by Lokpal on a written request from CBI.
Power with • Power of superintendence and direction over any investigation agency including CBI for
respect to CBI cases referred to them by Lokpal.
• Transfer of officers of CBI investigating cases referred by Lokpal would need approval
of Lokpal.
Removal • Lokpal Members and Chairperson shall be removed by President after an inquiry by
SC. For that, a petition has to be signed by at least 100 Members of Parliament (MP).ze Not o
Lokpal •
- It extends to Prime Minister, Ministers, MP, Group A, B, C and D officers and officials
Jurisdiction of central government.
o Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above
-
- ② ₹10 lakh.
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7.2. DELIMITATION COMMISSION
Why in the News?
Delimitations in India
Supreme Court (SC) asks the Centre to set up a fresh • The Delimitation Commission has been set up
Delimitation Commission to ensure a proportional four times since independence i.e. in 1952,
representation of the communities specified as 1963, 1973, and 2002.
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs), • In 1976, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
as mandated under the Constitution. froze this delimitation exercise until the first
Delimitation Commission Census after 2000 was published.
• In 2002, the 84th Constitutional Amendment
•
Article 82: Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act. further extended the freeze for 25 years till 2026.
•
i Itconstituencies
is responsible for the readjustment of the
(number and boundaries) of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies after every Census.
T
• Its decisions are considered final and are unchallengeable in any court.
• The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly
concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.-
Loksabha (Not Parliaments ,
• Composition: - m
-
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CBI Investigations
• Anti-corruption: These are usually registered
against public officials, and employees of union
⑳
government.
o The superintendence of CBI related to the
investigation of offences under the
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with
CVC. - -[
• Special crimes: Investigation of serious and
-
- - -
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• NCC Directorate: NCC at the state level is divided into 17 Directorates, in which each state or group of
states or UTs forms a Directorate.
- -
L
No Junior division/wing
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7.6. OTHER IMPORTANT NEWS
Competition Ravneet Kaur has become the first woman chairperson of CCI.
Commission of
India (CCI) G
- -
- -
-
-
I
E
Global Alliance • It was established in 1993 as International Coordinating Committee of National
of National Institutions for promotion and protection of human rights (ICC).
Human Rights • General Assembly is GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body.
Institutions • Bureau is the GANHRI executive committee. It is comprised of 16 members, 4 from
(GANHRI) each of GANHRI regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
• HQ: Geneva, Switzerland.
Appointments • ACC has approved appointment for the post of Director of the Special Protection
Committee of Group (SPG), the force that handles the security of the PM.
the Cabinet • About ACC:
(ACC) o It decides all higher-level appointments in Central Secretariat, Public
Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
o It is chaired by the PM.
o Minister of Home Affairs is also a member.
Press Press Information Bureau (PIB) marked its centennial anniversary.
Information
Bureau (PIB) se
④
- -
O
-
* -
-
- >
-
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National • NCGG has completed the training of 24th batch of Maldivian Civil Servants.
Centre for • About NCGG
Good o Genesis: Set up in 2014 under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and
Governance Pensions.
- -
>-
-
I
(NCGG) o Governing Body: Headed by Cabinet Secretary.
o Objectives: Improve governance, policy reforms, capacity building and training of
- - - - -
National • NIA conducted searches at various locations to locate those involved in attack on
Investigation High Commission of India in London.
Agency (NIA) • NIA was formed under NIA Act 2008, in the aftermath of 26/11 attacks.
o It is a federal counter-terror agency that can take suo-motu cognizance of
terrorist activity in any part of India.
o NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered NIA to investigate scheduled offenses
committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of
other countries.
·
✓ Act 2019 also empowered the centre to designate sessions court as special
court for NIA trials.
Cabinet • Cabinet Secretary was granted extension for another year.
Secretary (CS) • About CS
o Appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on seniority- C
cum-merit basis -
o CS is responsible for administration of the GoI (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961
and GoI (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961
o CS is also the head of Civil Services Board (CSB)
Y ·
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8. IMPORTANT ASPECTS OF GOVERNANCE
8.1. MISSION KARMAYOGI
Why in the News? Good Governance Day
On Good Governance Day, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & C ⑳
Since 2014, it is celebrated on 25th
Pensions launched Extended Version of Mission Karmayogi ②
December in honour of former
Prime Minister Shri Atal Bihari
About Mission Karmayogi
-
-
Vajpayee to promote citizen-
-
• Mission Karmayogi (National Programme for Civil Services centric, efficient and transparent
-
Capacity Building) aims at building a future-ready civil service governance and improve service
# with right attitude (innovative, professional, etc.), skills
(technology enabled) and knowledge aligned to the vision of
delivery.
New India.
• New features launched on Mission Karmayogi platform
o My iGOT: Delivers targeted training courses of individual
- -
officer.
= °
E
o Blended Programs: Facilitate equitable access to training
-
-
- - -
#
(Conduct) Rules, 1964.
o Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964 govern the
conduct of government employees in India.
#
Karamyogi Prarambh
• It is an online orientation programme under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• The programme aims to provide all the necessary details related to government policies for newly
appointees recruited through Rozgar Melas.
o It includes a set of eight courses curated to help all Rozgar Mela appointees.
• It falls under the ambit of Mission Karmayogi.
-
-
8.2. RIGHT TO INFORMATION (RTI)
Why in the news?
Recently, the Supreme Court directed the Centre and State governments to fill the vacancies in the Central
Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commission (SIC)
About the Right to Information (RTI)
• RTI means that any Indian citizen can request any information (which is supposed to be public knowledge)
from offices and departments of state or central governments.
• Nodal agency: Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions.
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• Key Provisions of RTI Act, 2005:
o Section 2(h): Public authority means any authority constituted-
✓ by or under the Constitution.
-
✓ by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any
- - --
strategic, scientific, or economic interests harm competitive position of a third party, unless
of State, relation with foreign State or lead to
-
competent authority is satisfied that larger
incitement of offence; public interest warrants disclosure of such
information
Which may constitute contempt of court.
- -
The disclosure of which would endanger life or
physical safety of any person;
>
-
exportional
PC E o Section 8(2): Information exempted under sub-section (1) and Official Secrets Act, 1923 can be
disclosed if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interest.
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8.3. AADHAAR
Why in the news?
I Pas aize
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has proposed rules to enable Aadhaar authentication by
entities other than Government Ministries and Key Features of Aadhar
Departments for better delivery of services to • Uniqueness: It is a # 12-digit unique number, and
citizens.
>
-
- -
-
• --
Targeted Delivery Aadhaar is mandatory for
-
O
-
Kyl ↳ >
-
-1
-
• Entities such as banks and telecom companies • Proof of address and Identity: It serves as proof recent
and proof of address for residents of dy VID
-
were allowed to perform authentication ifO
was satisfied with standards of privacy and
UIDAI -
of identity
India. Aadhaar is not a proof of citizenship. L or
security. • Electronics Benefit Transfers: The UID-enabled-
>
#
• Now, it is proposed that any entity other than a Bank-Account network will offer a secure and
ministry or department that desires to use low-cost platform to directly remit benefits to - - - -
o
• Biometric fraud detection: Biometric Service Providers (BSPs) can currently detect mixed biometrics,
wrong fingers, non-human fingers, gummy fingers, inverted IRIS images, and closed eyes during enrolment.
Constitutionality of Aadhaar Act (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v UoI)
• Aadhaar Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, Benefits and Services Act, 2016
(Aadhaar Act) was challenged before the apex court on the grounds that it was passed as a money
bill, thereby circumventing the upper house of Parliament.
• In its K.S. Puttaswamy v UoI judgment (2018), top court affirmed the constitutionality of the
Aadhaar act.
• Key Observations:
E
o Act was competently passed by Parliament, even though it was passed as a Money Bill.
-
o Act does
- -
not violate the fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21.
o Aadhaar would be mandatory for accessing social welfare schemes, but it cannot be forced on
20 -
people for opening bank accounts or for mobile and internet connection.
20
X
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00
T
8.4. REGULATION OF ONLINE GAMING
Why in the News?
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeiTY) has amended the Information Technology
(Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules (IT Rules) 2021.
More on News
• The aim is to enforce greater due diligence by online gaming and social media intermediaries in respect
of online games & fake or false misleading information related to Government business.
• The rules and amendments to IT Rules 2021 have been brought out under Section 87 of the Information
Technology Act, 2000.
o IT Rules 2021 were brought out for regulating social media intermediaries.
Key Features of the Rules on Online Gaming
• Clear definitions:
o “Online games” mean a game that is offered on the Internet and is accessible by a user through a
computer resource or an intermediary.
o “Online gaming intermediary (OGI)” means any intermediary that enables the users of its computer
resource to access one or more online games.
• Role of Intermediaries: To make a reasonable effort to not host, publish or share any online game that
can cause the user harm, or that has not been verified as a permissible online game by an online gaming
Self-Regulatory Body/Bodies (SRBs) designated by the Central Government.
o The intermediary will also have to ensure that no advertisement or surrogate advertisement or
promotion of an online game that is not a permissible online game, is hosted on its platform.
• Additional Obligations on OGI: The amended rules cast additional obligations on OGI in relation to online
games involving real money. These include:
o The displaying of a mark of verification by the self-regulatory body on such games;
o Informing their users of the policy for withdrawal or refund of the deposit;
o Obtaining the KYC details of the users; and
o Not giving credit or enabling financing by third parties to the users.
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• Multiple SRBs: The MeiTY may notify multiple SRBs, for the purposes of verifying an Online game as a
permissible one. An SRB should fulfil the following criteria:
o Company registered under Section 8 (Not-for-Profit entity) of the Companies Act 2013.
o Representative of the online gaming industry, promoting online games in a responsible manner.
o Incorporates provisions related to grievance redressal, arm’s length principle, disclosure and
reporting and clear criteria for membership.
• Authority of SRBs: The SRB may categorise any Game as a permissible game if it is satisfied that:
o the online game does not involve wagering on any outcome,
o the OGI and the game comply with the rules and the requirements under law for being competent to
enter into a contract (currently at 18 years), and
o the OGI and the game complies with the framework made by the SRB regarding safeguards.
• Prohibition: Online games that involve any kind of gambling (including ads) will be prohibited.
o It applies to both offline and online transactions through electronic means or by teleshopping or direct
selling or multilevel marketing.
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#
• However, any person who obtains goods or
avails services for resale or commercial
purposes is not treated as a consumer and is
outside the scope of CPA 2019.
Measures Taken for Consumer Protection in India
• Consumer Protection Act (CPA) 2019: It
provides for the Central Consumer Protection
Authority (CCPA) - --
• Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of District
Commission, State Commission and National
Commission) Rules, 2021: To provide simple,
speedy, and inexpensive redressal of consumer - ~
disputes, CPA 2019 envisages 3-tier quasi-
judicial machinery at National, State and District levels.
• ConfoNet Project: It stands for Computerization and Computer Networking of Consumer Fora in the
↳
country. It was implemented in the backdrop of CPA, 1986.
o It aims to improve operational efficiency, coordination, accessibility, and speed in judicial
administration and to set Information Communication TechnologyI (ICT) infrastructure at Consumer
Redressal commissions I all over India.
• Integrated Grievance Redress Mechanism (INGRAM) portal: It was developed under the aegis of the
Department of Consumer Affairs to create awareness, advise, and redress consumer grievances and
act as a central registry for lodging consumer grievances.
• E-Daakhil Portal: It provides a hassle-free, speedy and inexpensive facility to consumers around the
country to conveniently approach the relevant consumer forum, dispensing the need to travel and be
physically present.
• Certification markers: To protect and sensitize consumers regarding quality standards.
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8.6. GUIDELINES FOR CELEBRITIES, INFLUENCERS, AND VIRTUAL of adr·
industry ong
INFLUENCER seregulat Act
.
-
prohibited or restricted.
Misleading Advertisements, 2022.
-
o Prohibit Targeting Children:
• Department of Consumer Affairs, Consumer Advertisements that take advantage of
Affairs Ministry will actively monitor and enforce children’s inexperience have been
these guidelines. prohibited.
• Influencers found to be in violation of the new o Penalties: Violations may lead to penalties
guidelines could face penalties under the under the Consumer Protection Act 2019
Consumer Protection Act (2019) and other relevant provisions of the law.
✓ CCPA can impose a penalty of up to Rs 10
Key Provisions for celebrities, influencers, and
lakh on manufacturers, advertisers, and
virtual influencers
endorsers. For subsequent offences, a
• Guidelines for All: penalty can go up to Rs 50 lakh.
o Disclosure: All material connection (such
as monetary or other compensation, free products) between the advertiser and the influencer.
✓ It must be upfront and prominent so that it is not missed by an average consumer.
✓ Terms including advertisement, sponsored, collaboration, and paid promotion can be used,
which must be indicated as a hashtag or headline text.
o Due Diligence: Endorsers are encouraged to conduct a thorough review and ensure they are in a
position to substantiate the claims made in the advertisement.
✓ They must use or experience a product or service before endorsement.
✓ Influencers must refrain from making false, misleading, or exaggerated claims.
• For Health Influencer:
o Disclose Certification: Endorsers must disclose that they are certified health/fitness experts and
medical practitioners.
o Disclaimer: Endorsers must ensure that the audience understands that their endorsements should
not be seen as a substitute for professional medical advice.
• For influencers:
o Registration: Can offer investment-related advice {with subjects like banking, financial services, and
insurance (BFSI)} only after registering with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
⑭
✓ Other financial influencers must also possess appropriate credentials, such as a licence from the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
-
-
alienable. - -
• Diversion of forest land for local development rights: Establishment of schools, dispensaries, or
- - - -
hospitals,
Anganwadi centres,
etc.
• Protected Areas:
FRA is applicable in
National Parks,
Wildlife
Sanctuaries, and
Tiger Reserves.
• Act is important to
protect the right to
intellectual
property and traditional knowledge related to biodiversity and cultural diversity.
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MCA And o India’s digital market is expected to touch $ 1 trillion by 2025-26.
Meity • The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) would be the nodal Ministry to look into all
the competition issues in the digital market.
• Ministry of Information Technology (MeitY) will look into sector-specific issues.
• The government is working towards introducing legislation, including Digital India Act
and Digital Competition Law, for regulating various facets of the digital market in India.
Panchayat • Recently, it is released by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj. (NAX ROX)
Development o It provides a matrix to monitor and evaluate the progress of panchayats through
Index (PDI) the scores achieved by them.
o It ranks panchayats on the basis of scores and categorize them into four grades.
o Grades include A (75 to 90%), B (60-75), C (40-60%) and D (under 40%).
AAINA Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched
Dashboard ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal.
for Cities • It will provide information on status and
progress of cities on five broad thematic
areas
• Digital India Corporation (DIC) will provide
handholding to ULBs / States in the data
submission process.
o DIC provides strategic support to
Ministries/Departments for carrying
forward Digital India Mission
- - -
• Article 311 (2): It provides that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or
T -
o after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and
- -
-
k$umously
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