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Mock JEE Main - 10 (CBT) | JEE - 2024

Date: 28/03/2024 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 3:30 PM to 6:30 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.

6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature


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PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100


SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. A galvanometer has a resistance of 20  and reads full-scale when 0.2V is applied across it. To convert
it into a 10A ammeter, the galvanometer coil should have a:
(A) 0.01 resistor connected parallel to it
(B) 0.02  resistor connected parallel to it
(C) 200  resistor connected in series with it
(D) 2000  resistor connected in series with it
2. Find power through Zener diode in voltage regulator circuit shown in the figure:

(A) 100  103 W (B) 50  103 W (C) 500  103 W (D) 33.3 103 W

3. What is the value of inductance ‘L’ for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with
C  10 F and   1000 s 1 ?
(A) 1mH (B) 10 mH (C) 100mH (D) 1000 mH

4. The dimension formula of planck’s constant (h) is:


(A) [ML2T 1 ] (B) [ML2T 1 ] (C) [ML2T 2 ] (D) [MLT 1 ]

3
5. If a man at the equator would weight   th of his weight, the angular speed of the earth is:
5
2g g R 2R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5R R g 5g

6. The ratio for the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit of He  to the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit
of hydrogen atom will be:
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 4:1 (D) 2:1

7. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface connected by a light string passing over
two smooth pulleys as shown. Another block of 1Kg is connected to the other end of the string. The
acceleration of the system is: [Coefficient of friction   0.2]

(A) 0.8 g (B) 0.4 g (C) 0.5 g (D) Zero

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8. A stone of mass 1.5Kg is tied at the end of 0.5m long string and whirled in a vertical circular path at
constant speed of 2 ms 1. The maximum tension in the string is: [ g  10 ms 2 ]
(A) 27 N (B) 3N (C) 90 N (D) 15 N

CP
9. Two moles of a monoatomic gas is mixed with 3 moles of a diatomic gas. Find of mixture of gases.
CV
11 21 21 31
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21 11 31 21
10. A series combination of R, L and C is connected to an A.C. source. If the resistance is 3 and reactance
is 4  . The power factor of the circuit is:
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
++
11. The energy provided to an Li atom in ground state so that it can emit only three different photons will
be:
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 91.8 eV (C) 108.8 eV (D) 12.1 eV

12. The pressure and volume of 1 mole ideal gas are related as PV 3/4  constant. The work done by gas
when its temperature is increased from T0 to 3T0 is:
(A) 4RT0 (B) 8RT0 (C) 16RT0 (D) 32RT0

13. The length (l) and acceleration due to gravity (g) was measured in the laboratory as l = (5 ± 0.05) m,
g  (10  0.20) m / s 2 . The percentage error in time period of simple pendulum is:
(A) 0.5% (B) 1% (C) 1.5% (D) 2%

14. A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest
height attained by it. The range of the projectile is (where g is acceleration due to gravity)
4v 2 4g v2 4v 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5g 5v 2 g 5g
15. A thin sheet of glass (  1.5) of thickness 6 microns introduced in the path of one of interfering beams
of a double slit experiment shifts the central fringe to a position previously occupied by fifth bright
fringe. Then the wavelength of the light used is:
(A) 6000 Å (B) 3000 Å (C) 4500 Å (D) 7500 Å

16. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 200 divisions on the circular scale. The least count of
the screw will be:
(A) 0.5m (B) 1m (C) 5m (D) 10m

17. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Clothes containing oil or grease stains cannot be cleaned by water wash.
Reason (R) : Because the angle of contact between the oil/grease and water is obtuse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

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18. A ball is projected with horizontal velocity 0  9 gR at the bottom most point attached with
inextensible string of length R and fixed at O as shown. Tension in the string in horizontal position:

(A) 3 mg (B) 5 mg (C) 7 mg (D) 9 mg

19. The reading of voltmeter in the following circuit will be:

(A) 2 volt (B) 0.80 volt (C) 1.33 volt (D) 1.60 volt

20. Two capacitor of equal capacitance are connected according to figure shown below. Now switch is
closed. The decrease in energy of the combined system is:

3 1 9
(A) CV 2 (B) CV 2 (C) 2CV 2 (D) CV 2
4 4 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x-axis) under the action of variable force. The variation of
t3
its position (x) with time (t) is given as x   2t 2  4t  3, where x is in m and t is in sec. The
3
acceleration of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is _______ m / s 2 .

2. A source of frequency 10 kHz when vibrated over the mouth of a closed organ pipe is in unison at 250K
temperature. The beats produced when temperatures rises by 1 K is _______ Hz.

3. An ideal fluid of density 800 kg m3 , flows smoothly through a bent pipe (as shown in the figure) that
a
tapers in cross-sectional area from a to . The pressure difference between the wide and narrow sections
2
x 1
of pipe is 4100 Pa. At wider section, the velocity of fluid is ms for x = _______.
6
[Given : g  10 m / s 2 ]

4. A square is formed by bending a wire of length 4 meter. If an electric current of 2 A is flowing


through the sides of square, the magnetic field at the centre of the polygon would be x  107 T . The
value of x is _______.

5. In an electrical circuit, a battery is connected to pass 20C of charge through it in a certain given time. The
potential difference between two plates of the battery is maintained at 15V. The work done by the battery
is _______ J.
6. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a
liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be _______ cm.
7. The position of the centre of mass of a uniform semi-circular wire of radius ‘R’ placed in x-y plane with
 xR 
its centre at the origin and the line joining its ends as x-axis is given by  0,  . Then, the value of | x |
  
is _______.

8. Flux  (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 varies with time ‘t’ (in seconds) according to the

equation   6t 2  4t  1. The magnitude of the induced current in the circuit at t = 2 is _____ Ampere.

9. When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the maximum
velocity of emitted electron is v1. When the frequency of incident radiation is increased to five times the
threshold value, the maximum velocity of emitted electron becomes v2 . If v2  xv1, the value of x will
be _______.

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10. Two identical conducting spheres with negligible volume have 2.1 nC and –0.1 nC charges, respectively.
They are brought into contact and then separated by a distance of 0.5 m. The electrostatic force acting
between the spheres is _______  109 N .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds?

i ii iii iv v
(A) i > ii > iii > iv > v (B) v > iii > ii > iv > i
(C) v > iii > i > ii > iv (D) iii > i > v > ii > iv

2. For atoms/ions of Isoelectronic series, which of the following is same for all atoms/Ions:
(A) Size (B) Number of protons and electrons
(C) Nuclear charge (D) Principal quantum number

3. Which of the following reactions are comproportionation reactions?


(i) 2H 2S(g)  SO2 (g)  3S(g)  2H 2O(g)
(ii) 3MnO 24  4H   2MnO4  MnO2  2H 2O
(iii) 2KMnO 4  K 2 MnO 4  MnO 2  O2
(iv) Ag 2 (aq)  Ag (s)  2Ag  (g)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iv)

4. We have three aqueous solutions of 0.2 M Urea (A), 0.1 M NaCl (B), 0.01 M MgCl2 (C) respectively.
The value of van’t Hoff factor (i) for these solutions will be in the order:
[Consider NaCl, MgCl2 are strong electrolyte]
(A) i A  iC  i B (B) iA  iB  iC (C) i A  i B  iC (D) i A  i B  iC

5. Match List-I with List-II.


List-I (Reactions) List-II (Reagents)
(a) CH 3 (CH 2 )5  CN  CH3 (CH 2 )5 CHO (i) LiAlH 4 / ether
(b) C6 H5COC6 H5  C6 H 5CH 2C6 H 5 (ii) NH 2  NH 2 / KOH

(c) (iii) NaBH 4 , H 

(d) CH 3COCH 2COOH  CH3CH(OH)CH 2COOH (iv) DIBAL  H, H 2O


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

6. Reaction intermediate formed due to heterolytic bond cleavage are:


(A) Free radical and carbene (B) Cabocation and carbanion
(C) Free radical and carbanion (D) Cation only

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7. In acidic medium, KMnO 4 shows oxidising action as represented in the half reaction:

MnO 4  XH   Ye  A  ZH 2O
X, Y, Z and A respectively are:
(A) 8, 4, 5 and MnO 2 (B) 4, 3, 2 and MnO 2

(C) 8, 4, 5 and Mn 2 (D) 8, 5, 4 and Mn 2


8. Piston moves in an insulated cylinder from 10 L to 20 L against 2 atm pressure. The work done during
this expansion is (in atm.Ltr)
(A) –20 (B) 10 (C) +20 (D) –10
9. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KNO2 to form alkyl nitrite as major product while with
AgNO 2 form Nitroalkane as the major product.
Reason (R) : KNO2 is ionic while AgNO 2 is covalent compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(D) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
10. Given below are two statements:
2
Statement-I : A solution having [Co(NH3 )6 ] ion is coloured.
2
Statement-II : A solution having [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] ion is colourless.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II are incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II are correct
11. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Oxalic acid is a primary standard solution used for standardization of sodium hydroxide
solution.
Statement-II : In this titration methyl orange can be used as indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(B) Both Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II are incorrect.
(D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
12. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Benzene can be used as a solvent for the Friedel-craft alkylation of bromobenzene.
Statement II: Phenol does not undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation)
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II are incorrect
(D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

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13. Which of the following complex is not homoleptic?


(A) [Fe(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] (B) [Ni(H 2O)6 ]2
(C) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (D) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2

14. Given below are two statements:


Statement-I : Carbolic acid and phenol are same organic compounds.
Statement-II : Carbolic acid and phenol have different functional groups.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II are correct
(D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

15. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : H 2S has lower boiling point than H 2O.
Reason (R) : Substances with hydrogen bonding tend to have unusually low boiling points.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

16. Kjeldahl’s method can be used for


(A) Methanol (B) Nitrobenzene (C) Pyridine (D) Aniline

17. Which nitrogenous base is not present in DNA?


(A) Adenine (B) Uracil (C) Guanine (D) Thymine

18. Identify A and B in the following sequence of reaction:

2Cl /h 2 BH O


 A 
373K

(A) A= B=

(B) A= B=

(C) A= B=

(D) A= B=

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19. Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules.
LiF, KF, O 2 , CO 2 and Na 2O
(A) O 2  CO2  Na 2O  KF  LiF (B) LiF  KF  Na 2O  CO 2  O 2
(C) O 2  CO2  Na 2O  LiF  KF (D) Na 2O  O 2  CO 2  LiF  KF

20. In H-atom, if ‘x’ is the radius of first Bohr orbit, de Broglie wavelength of an electron in 5th orbit is:
(A) 6x (B) 10x (C) 10x (D) 5x
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. The number of molecules/ion/s having trigonal planar shape is _______.


NH3 , CO32 , BF3 , CO 2 , SO3 , COCl2 , BrF5 , [PtCl4 ]2 , NO3 , SO 42

2. Number of optical isomers possible for 4-Bromopentan-2-ol.

3. Consider the following reaction 4FeCl3  3K 4[Fe(CN)6 ]  Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3  12KCl.


Ferriferrocyanate

If 60 mmol of FeCl3 is mixed with 48 mmol of K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3 , then the amount of Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
formed is _______ mmol (Nearest integer).

4. Among the following oxides, number of oxides having only acidic nature is _______.
Cl 2O7 , CO, PbO2 , N 2O, NO, Al2 O3 , SiO 2 , N 2 O5 , Na 2 O, Mn 2 O7 , CrO3 , SO 2

 
5. The cell Pt, H 2 (1atm) | H (pH  ?) || I (2M) | AgI (s) , Ag (s) | Pt has emf E 298K  0. The standard

electrode potentials for the reaction AgI  e  Ag  I  is –0.162 volt. pH of the solution is _______.
[Given : 2.303 RT/F = 0.06 V, log (2) = 0.3]

6. The lowest oxidation state of an atom in a compound A3B is –3. The group number of that element
is_______.

7. A sample of U 238 (Half-life  4.5  109 years) ore is found to contain 11.9 g U 238 and 30.9 g of

Pb 206 . If the age of the ore is x  109 years, then value of x is _______.
8. Total number of activating groups in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction among the following
is_______.

9. The number of yellow-coloured salts, among the following is _______.


(a) SnSO 4 (b) BaSO 4 (c) AgI (d) PbI2
(e) PbCrO4 (f) Ag 2CrO 4 (g) CdS (h) HgS
(i) SnS2 (j) As 2S3 (k) Fe(SCN)3 (l) NaMnO 4
(m) CuO

10. K a for CH 3COOH is 1.6  105 and K b for NH 4 OH is 1.6  105. The degree of hydrolysis of
0.05 M CH3COONH 4 is x  101 . Value of x is _______. (Nearest integer)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. Let S  {x  R : (3  2 2) x  (3  2 2) x  34}, then number of elements in S is:


(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2

1 1
2. If 3 f ( x)  2 f    2
 1  x  0 and y  5 x 2 f ( x) then y is strictly decreasing in:
 x x
 1  1   1  1
(A)   , 0   ,  (B)  ,     0, 
 2  2   2  2
 1 1   1 1
(C)  ,     ,   (D)  , 
 2 2   2 2
3. Let 5, a, b, c be in AP and 1, a – 6, b – 4, c + 10 be in G.P., then sum of first 5 terms of the GP is:
(A) 242 (B) 121 (C) 363 (D) 726

4. If the area enclosed by the curves xy + 4y = 16 and x + y = 6 is (a – bln2) square units, then value of
a + b is:
(A) 2 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 32

5. There are two urns U1 and U 2 . U1 contains n white and 3 black balls whereas U 2 contains 5 white and
4 black balls. One of the urns is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the drawn ball is white
9
then probability that it is drawn from urn U1 is , then n =
17
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9

ln x, x  0  x, x  0
6. Let f : R  R and g : R  R be such that f ( x )    x and g ( x )   x , then
e , x  0 e , x  0
fog : R  R is:
(A) Neither one-one nor onto (B) Both one-one and onto
(C) Onto but not one-one (D) One-one but not onto

7. If n is the number of ways in which 7 people can stay in 5 indistinguishable rooms of a hotel, when no
room remains empty, then n is equal to:
(A) 135 (B) 240 (C) 140 (D) 90

 ax sin x  (b  1)esin x
 , x0
 x2

8. Let f : R  R be defined as f ( x )   2 x 2  cx  1, 0  x  1.
 x  2, x 1



If f is continuous  x  R and m is the number of points where f ( x ) is NOT differentiable then
mabc 
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 3

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 /6
x dx
9. The value of integral  sin (3 x)  cos 4 (3 x)
4
equals to:
0
2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 72 64 18
10. If M is a 3 × 3 matrix such that M 2  O, then det (( I  M ) 50  50 M ) 
(Where I is an identity matrix of order 3  3 and O is null matrix)
(A) 3 (B) 50 (C) 0 (D) 1

x  2y  z  4 

11. If the system of equations x  y  3 z  2  has infinitely many solutions, then 48 is equal to:
2 x  y   z  1 
(A) 289 (B) 179 (C) 279 (D) 286
dy
12. Let y  y ( x) be the solution of the differential equation  y (ln x )  (1  (ln x))e x , y (1)  e then
dx
2
  1 
 y   2  
  
1 2
(A) (B) e (C) (D) 2e
e e
     
13. Let a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, b  iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ and c  ((( a  b )  iˆ)  ˆj )  kˆ then c  (2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ) 
(A) –7 (B) –12 (C) –10 (D) –14

14. Let C : x 2  y 2  4 and C  : x 2  y 2  8x  9  0 be two circles. If the set of all values of , so that
the circles C and C  intersect at two distinct points, is R – [a, b], then the point (48a + 40, 80b – 60) lies
on the curve
(A) y 2  24 x (B) 7 x 2  y 2  10
(C) (5 x)2  y 2  50 (D) 5 x 2  y 2  50

x2 y2 3
15. Let 2
 2
 1, a > b be an ellipse, whose eccentricity isand length of latus rectum is 5, then
a b 2
x2 y2
square of eccentricity of conjugate hyperbola of the hyperbola 2  2  1 is:
a b
5
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D)
2
16. 
Let S  z  C : | z  3 |  1 and (1+ 5 3i) z  (1  5 3i ) z  0 . 
Let z1, z2  S be such that | z1 |  max | z | and | z 2 |  min | z | then | z1  z2 | 
z S zS
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5

1 x
17. If tan A  ( x 3  x 2  x 1 )1/2 , tan B  and tan C  . where,
2 2
x x  x 1 x  x 1

0  A, B, C  then, (A – B) is equal to:
2
 
(A) C (B) C (C) C (D) C
2 2
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18. Let the median and mean deviation about the median of 7 observations. 170, 125, 230, 190, 210, a, b be
241
210 and respectively, then mean of all seven data is:
7
(A) 202 (B) 203 (C) 204 (D) 201

x   y  2 z 1 x  3 y 1 z  2
19. If the shortest distance between the lines   and   is 2, then
2 1 1 1 2 1
sum of squares of all possible values of  is:
(A) 27 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 30


20. For 0    , if the eccentricity of the hyperbola x 2  y 2 sec 2   5 is 7 times of the eccentricity
2
of the ellipse x 2 sec 2   y 2  5, then the value of  is:
 5  
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 12 6 3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. Let 2, 7, 12, 17, ….., 404 terms and 3, 5, 7, 9….up to 200 terms be two arithmetic progressions, then the
sum of the common terms in them, is equal to _______.

2. Let the line L : x  3 y   passes through the point of the intersection P (in the first quadrant) of the

circle x 2  y 2  4 and the parabola y 2  3x. Let the line L touch two circles C1 and C2 of equal
radius 2. If the centres Q1 and Q2 of the circles C1 and C2 lie on the x-axis, then the square of the
area of the triangle PQ1Q2 is equal to _______.
 /4
4 2 cos 2 x
3. If  x 4 4
dx     log e ( 2  1) where ,  are integers, then
  /4 (1  (2024) ) (sin x  cos x)

 2   2 equals _______.

4. Let A = {1, 2, 3, …….,20}. Let R1 and R2 be two relation on A such that:


R1  {(a, b) : b is divisible by a}
R2  {(a, b) : a  b}
Then, number of elements in R2  R1 is equal to _______.

5. Let the line of the shortest distance between the lines L1 : r  iˆ   ( ˆj  kˆ) and

L2 : r  ˆj  kˆ  (iˆ  ˆj ) intersect L1 and L2 at P and Q respectively. If (, ,  ) be the mid-point of
the line segment PQ then 6(     ) is equal to _______.
6
 1  2 7 3 8
6. If the coefficient of x30 in the expansion of  1  3  (1  x ) (1  x ) , x  0 is , then |  |
 x 
equals _______.

7. Let P  {z  C :| z  3  2i |  2} and Q  {z  C : z (1  i )  z (1  i )  8} . Let in P  Q , |z + 2 + 3i| be


2 2
maximum and minimum at z1 and z2 respectively. If | z1 |  2 | z2 |     2 , where ,  are
integers, then    equals to _________.

8. The number of elements in the set S = {(x, y, z) : x, y, z  Z, 2x + 2y + 3z = 32, x, y , z  0} equals


to_______.

9. If x  x(t ) be the solution of the differential equation (t  1) dx  (2 x  t 4  4t 3  6t 2  4t  1)dt ,


1
x(0)  then x(1) equals to _______.
2
cos 1 (1  {x}2 ) sin 1 ({x}  {x}2 )
10. Let {x} denote the fractional part of x and f ( x)  , x  0. If L and R
{x}  {x}3
32
respectively denote the left-hand limit and right hand limit of f (x) at x = 0, then 2
( L2  R 2 ) is equal

to_______.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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