NCERT Based Natural Science

NCERT Based 1000 MCQ for DSSSB TGT Natural Science
Biology Q7. The basic unit of all living organisms is

(a) A drop of blood
Q1. In human body, the cell growth and differentiation
(b) A molecule of glucose
are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells.
(a) there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanism (c) A set of proteins
leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors (d) A cell
(b) controlled cell division and over production of Ans: (d)
genetic material occur
Q8. Which of the following is the basic characteristic of a
(c) RNA is mutated and produced in less amount
living organism?
(d) DNA is mutated and produced in less amount
Ans: (a) (a) Ability to move
(b) Ability to reproduce
Q2. A ‘clinical death' takes place when (c) Ability to eat
(a) There is no pulse
(d) Ability to breathe
(b) There is no heart beat
Ans: (b)
(c) Pupils are fixed and dilated, and there is no reaction
to light Q9. Which of the following branches of science is
(d) All the above three conditions are present together concerned with the study of the relationship of plants to
Ans: (d) their environment?
Q3. Man has become the dominant species in the (a) Cytology
biosphere because of his (b) Ecology
(a) Tool-making capacity (c) Morphology
(b) Ingenious brainpower (d) Physiology
(c) Articulated speech and language Ans: (b)
(d) All the above mentioned qualities
Ans: (d) Q10. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because
Q4. Movements due to light are shown by (a) They lack chlorophyll and so they are incapable of
(a) Flowering plants making their own food
(b) Lower plants (b) They hate sunlight
(c) All land plants (c) They use other kinds of light for their food synthesis
(d) All the plants (d) They prepare their food without the help of sunlight
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q5. The main difference between the living and
nonliving is
(a) in the growth
(b) in the size
(c) in the movement
(d) in the presence of protoplasm
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which is regarded as a link between the living and
the non-living?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Virus
(c) Bacteria
(d) RNA
Ans: (b)
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Q11. Most viruses that infect plant possess Q19. Man belongs to the phylum
(a) single-stranded DNA (a) Mollusca
(b) single-stranded RNA (b) Chordata
(c) double-stranded DNA and RNA (c) Porifera
(d) double - stranded RNA only (d) Amphibian
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q12. A cockroach has Q20. Outer covering of virus made up of protein is
(a) Three pairs of walking legs (a) Capsid
(b) Two pairs of walking legs (b) Coat
(c) Four pairs of walking legs (c) Virion
(d) One pair of walking legs (d) Viroid
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q13. All the following are invertebrates except Q21. Snakes and lizards are animals that are
(a) Snail (a) Warm-blooded
(b) Crab (b) Cold-blooded
(c) Prawn (c) Both
(d) Fish (d) None of these
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
Q14. Bacteria reproduce Q22. The virus that infects a bacterium is
(a) By sexual method only (a) Arbovirus
(b) By asexual method only (b) Viremia
(c) Mostly by sexual method (c) Bacteriophage
(d) Mostly by asexual method (d) Baclofen
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q15. Crows and pigeons are Q23. Which of the following is a parasitic plant?
(a) Warm-blooded (a) Marchantia
(b) Cold-blooded (b) Kelp
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) Mushroom
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) Pteris
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q16. Fungi are always Q24. Which of the following is an amphibian?

(a) Autotrophic (a) Whale
(b) Heterotrophic (b) Turtle
(c) Parasitic (c) Frog
(d) Saprophytic (d) Cow
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q17. Lichen is considered to be a symbiotic association Q25. Which of the following is not a mammal?
of two living organisms. Which organisms are involved (a) Fish
in it? (b) Cow
(a) Algae and bacteria (c) Goat
(b) Algae and fungi (d) Whale
(c) Algae and bryophytes Ans: (a)
(d) Fungi and bryophytes Q26. Algae often float on surface of water during the day
Ans: (b) but sink down during the night due to
Q18. Mammals are (a) Evolution and trapping of oxygen bubbles during the
(a) Warm-blooded day in their photosynthesis
(b) Becoming light as they consume most of their food in
(b) Cold-blooded
the night
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Warming action of sun during the day
(d) None of these
(d) Release of absorbed air by warming of water
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q27. Aves are Q35. A cell cycle consists of
(a) Cold-blooded (a) Mitosis and meiosis
(b) Warm-blooded (b) GI, the Sphase, and G2
(c) Both (c) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
(d) None of these (d) Interphase and mitosis
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q28. Bacteria and fungi developing on dead decaying Q36. Gene is
organisms are (a) A segment of DNA or functional RNA
(a) Parasites (b) A segment of DNA and histone
(b) Commensals (c) A segment of DNA, RNA and histone
(c) Saprophytes (d) All of the above
(d) Symbionts Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q37. Genes control
Q29. Bacteria can live in cold climate for (a) Protein synthesis but not heredity
(a) Few years (b) Protein synthesis and heredity
(b) 1,000 years (c) Heredity but not protein synthesis
(c) 2,000 years (d) Biochemical reaction of some enzymes
(d) Many years Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)
Q38. Genetics is the branch of science that deals with the
Q30. Bacteria having flagella all over the body are called study of
(a) Lophotrichous (a) Relations between plants and the environment
(b) Monotrichous (b) Inheritance and variation
(c) Peritrichous (c) Cell structure
(d) Morphotrichous (d) Thermal structures
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q31. Inflorescence is Q39. The human cell contains
(a) Group of flowers (a) 44 chromosomes
(b) Occurrence of flowers (b) 48 chromosomes
(c) Arrangement of flowers (c) 46 chromosomes
(d) Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis (d) 23 chromosomes
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q32. Insects belong to the phylum Q40. The power house of energy in cells is
(a) Annelida (a) Golgi bodies
(b) Arthropoda (b) Mitochondria
(c) Crustaceans (c) Ribosomes
(d) Coelenterate (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q33. Of the following taxonomic categories which is the Q41. The process of cell division can take place by
most inclusive (i.e., is the highest in hierarchy)? (a) Heterosis
(a) Order (b) Fusion
(b) Subspecies (c) Mitosis
(c) Class (d) None of these
(d) Genus Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q42. The process of the division of somatic cells of an
Q34. Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage organism is called
crops are (a) Mitosis
(a) Flowering plants
(b) Meiosis
(b) Gymnospermous plants
(c) Cytokinesis
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) None of these
(d) Bryophytes
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q43. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by Q50. A high surface area to volume ratio in cells is
the presence of important because it
(a) Nucleus (a) Enables efficient transfer of wastes, nutrients and
(b) Chloroplasts gases across the cell membrane
(c) Cell membrane (b) Prevents overproduction of cell proteins due to
(d) Mitochondria structural limitations
Ans: (b) (c) Allows many antigens on the surface for
Q44. Every multicellular organism, be it a microscopic identification of self and non-self
alga, a banyan tree or a human being, starts as a single (d) Provides for better structural support to cope with
cell called a/an external physical pressure
(a) Egg Ans: (a)
(b) Sperm Q51. Broad spectrum antibiotics are one which attack
(c) Nucleus (a) Pathogens as well as host
(d) Gene (b) A wide range of pathogens
Ans: (a) (c) Only pathogens
Q45. HCI is secreted by (d) Only host
(a) Zymogen cells Ans: (b)
(b) Peptic cell Q52. The fluid medium of the nucleus is called
(c) Oxyntic cells (a) Chromosomes
(d) None of these (b) Nucleolus
Ans: (c) (c) Nucleoplasm
Q46. In which of the following will you look for E. Coli? (d) Chromatin
(a) Milk Ans: (c)
(b) Water Q53. The substance that makes up about 80% of
(c) Human intestine cytoplasm
(d) Soil (a) Minerals
Ans: (c) (b) Water
Q47. Just as the division of cytoplasm is called (c) Protein
cytokinesis, the division of nucleus is called (d) Fats
(a) Heterosis Ans: (b)
(b) Mitosis Q54. The type of relationship in which one organism is
(c) Meiosis
benefited while there is no effect on other is
(d) Karyokinesis
(a) Symbiosis
Ans: (d)
(b) Commensalisms
Q48. The basic structure of cell membranes (c) Mutualism
(a) Is a lipid bilayer that serves as a barrier to water (d) Parasitism
soluble molecules Ans: (b)
(b) Differs ultra structurally for internal and external
membranes of cell
(c) Is best described as lipids dispersed within a protein
bilayer
(d) Is visualised as bilaminar structure with transmission
electron microscopy
Ans: (a)
Q49. The organelle that make ATP is
(a) Microbody
(b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondrion
(d) Ribosome
Ans: (c)

Q55. Under the electron microscope, you observe a cell Q61. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to
with three different types of large organelles, each biochemicals of cell membrane named
bounded by two membranes. The cell is most likely (a) Proteins
(a) A plant (b) Lipids
(b) An animal (c) Proteins and lipids
(c) A fungus (d) Glycoproteins and glycolipids
(d) A bacterium Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q62. Cell wall of chloroplast is removed, the remaining
Q56. Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains is called
(a) a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate (a) Etioplast
group (b) Aleuroplast
(b) a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate (c) Amyloplast
group (d) Protoplast
Ans: (d)
(c) deoxyribose sugar ribose sugar and phosphate group
(d) a nitrogenous base and phosphate group only Q63. Endocytosis is a process whereby a cell
Ans: (a) (a) Digests itself
(b) Engulfs and internalises material using its membrane
Q57. Neurospora is used as genetic material because
(c) Identifies other cells within its immediate
(a) It has short life cycle of 10 days
(d) Enables the extracellular digestion of large molecules
(b) The product of single meiosis can be easily analysed
Ans: (b)
(c) Meiotic products are linearly arranged in the form of
ordered tetrads Q64. Following are the characteristic of genetic code
(d) Is a diploid fungus (a) It is triplet
Ans: (a) (b) It is universal
(c) It is non-overlapping
Q58. AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency (d) It is ambiguous
Virus (HIV) The transmission of HIV infection generally Ans: (a)
occurs through.
(a) eating contaminated food and water Q65. In meiosis the daughter cells are not similar to that
(b) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood of parent because of
products (a) Crossing over
(c) inhaling polluted air (b) Synapsis
(d) shaking hand with infected person (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q59. The offspring from a cross between two individuals
Q66. The only molecule in the living world that can
differing in at least one set of characters is called a
replicate itself is
(a) Polyploid
(a) DNA
(b) Hybrid
(b) RNA
(c) Mutant
(c) Both DNA and RNA
(d) Variant
(d) Neither DNA nor RNA
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q60. The process of copying genetic information from Q67. The RNA molecules from a single strand of
one strand of DNA in to RNA is termed as ribonucleotides of
(a) translation (a) Adenine, guanine, cytosins and uracil
(b) transcription (b) Adenine, guanine and cytosins
(c) replication (c) Adenine and guanine
(d) mutation (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)

Q68. The role of transfer RNS (IRNA) is to Q75. Cleavage divisions differ from normal mitotic
(a) Transfer mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm divisions in that:
(b) Carry amino acids from the cytoplasm to the nucleus (a) There is no nuclear division during cleavage
(c) Carry the newly synthesised protein to its site of (b) There is no division of cytoplasm during cleavage
function in the cell (c) The division of cytoplasm follows nuclear division
(d) Transport amino acids to ribosomes (d) There is no period of growth in between divisions
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q69. The two strands of the DNA double helix are held
Q76. DNA molecules are composed of
together by
deoxyribonucleotides of
(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b)C=C double bonds (a) Adenine and guanine
(c) Hydrophobic bonds (b) Adenine, guanine and cytosine
(d) Peptide bonds (c) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine
Ans: (a) (d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q70. What is the most likely explanation for the
observation that two individuals originating from the Q77. DNA nucleotides are attached by
same clone look different? (a) Hydrogen bonds
(a) They developed in different environments (b) Covalent bonds
(b) They are differentially adapted to the same (c) VANDER Wall's force
environment (d) Electrovalent bonds
(c) The clone from which they originated had more than Ans: (b)
one genotype
(d) They differ in heterozygosity Q78. DNA replication means
Ans: (a) (a) DNA → DNA
(b) DNA → RNA
Q71. When white -flowered plant were crossed with
(c) Autocatalytic function of DNA
pure red - flowered plants, the progeny were -
(a) White flowered (d) Heterocatalytic function of DNA
(b) Red flowered Ans: (a)
(c) Exhibiting 3:1 ratio of red to whiteflowered plants Q79. How many different kinds of amino acids are
(d) Exhibiting 1:1 ratio of red to whiteflowered plants specified by the genetic code?
Ans: (b)
(a) 15
Q72. Which organelle does assemble ribosomes? (b) 20
(a) Nuclear envelope (c) 12
(b) Nucleolus (d) 200
(c) Chromosomes Ans: (b)
(d) Nucleoplasm
Ans: (b) Q80. A ligament is
(a) A fibrous tissue that joins the muscle to bone
Q73. Which statement is true of rRNA?
(b) A type of amorphous gel that cements non movable
(a) Called soluble RNA
joints together
(b) Named by Jacob and Monod
(c) A type of fibrous connective tissue that joins bones
(c) The smallest molecule of RNA
(d) They form 80% of the total RNA together at joints
Ans: (d) (d) Only formed to repair damaged muscle tissue
Ans: (c)
Q74. Which of the following is not a correct
combination? Q81. A pl ant leaf appears to be green because it
(a) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (a) Absorbs green light
(b) Leptonema, zygonema, pachynema, diplonema (b) Reflects all but yellow and blue light
(c) Diplonema, anaphase I, telophase I, mitosis (c) Reflects green light
(d) Prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II (d) Absorbs red and yellow light
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)

Q82. Which tissue is responsible for the passage of water Q89. Maize grain is
in plants? (a) A seed
(a) Sclerenchyma (b) An embryo
(b) Xylem (c) An ovule
(c) Phloem (d) A fruit
Ans: (d)
(d) Collenchynatous cells
Ans: (b) Q90. The odd one among the following is
(a) Monocytes
Q83. Delicious chilgoza seeds, commercially important
(b) Lymphocyte
products such as turpentine and resin and the drug (c) Neutrophils
ephedrine, useful in asthma and other respiratory (d) Erythrocytes
ailments, are all obtained from plants that are Ans: (d)
(a) Ferns
Q91. Phloem is a tissue found in
(b) Algae
(a) Reproductive organs of animals
(c) Monocotyledons and dicotyledons (b) Plants
(d) Gymnosperms (c) Insects
Ans: (d) (d) Mammals
Q84. Edible part of cauliflower is - Ans: (b)
(a) Bud Q92. Potato is a modified form of
(b) Inflorescence (a) Root
(c) Flower (b) Stem
(d) Fruit (c) Fruit
Ans: (b) (d) Leaf
Ans: (b)
Q85. Edible part of mango and coconut is
Q93. Scarification of seeds is done for removing
(a) Mesocarp, endocarp
(a) Dormancy
(b) Endocarp and mesocarp
(b) Germination inhibitors
(c) Mesocarp and pericarp
(c) Growth
(d) Style and stigma (d) Embryo
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q86. From which part of the plant is turmeric obtained? Q94. The smallest flowering plant is
(a) Root (a) Amorphophallus
(b) Fruit (b) Azadaachta indica
(c) Seed (c) Erecta indica
(d) Stem (d) Wolffia arrhiza
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q87. Fruiting body of mushrooms is present in Q95. What is tissue culture?

(a) Preparation of fragments of cell of an organism for
(a) Fungi
biochemical examination
(b) Algae
(b) Storage of human tissue for transplantation
(c) Like monocotyledon seeds (c) A special type of skin grafting to treat burn cases
(d) Like dicotyledon seed (d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q88. Ginger and sweet potato are Q96. When we eat cauliflower we consume
(a) Homologous (a) Leaf
(b) Stem and roots respectively (b) Stem
(c) Analogous (c) Flower
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Inflorescence
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

Q97. Which of the following are mostly woody trees, Q105. A balanced diet contains
always perennials and never herbs or annuals? (a) Animal protein
(a) Angiosperms (b) Macro and micronutrients
(b) Gymnosperms (c) Food nutrients for growth and maintenance
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Butter and ghee
(d) Bryophytes
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Q98. A dicot root shows Q106. A food chain consists of a
(a) Large pith (a) Producer only
(b) Reduced or no pith (b) Consumer only
(c) Endarch xylem (c) Producer and a consumer
(d) Conjoint bundles (d) Decomposer only
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q99. Adventitious roots develop from Q107. A healthy freshwater fish is placed in saltwater.
(a) Epidermis The expected consequence of this would be that
(b) Pericycle or interfascicular parenchyma (a) The fish becomes dehydrated and dies
(c) Cortex
(b) The fish becomes bloated and dies
(d) Endodermis
(c) The fish suffers from a fungal or bacterial disease and
Ans: (b)
dies
Q100. Dicot root having more than six vascular bundles (d) There is no observable effect on the fish provided
is there is sufficient food
(a) Pea
Ans: (a)
(b) Sunflower
(c) Ficus Q108. Manufacturing food by the process of
(d) Ranunculus photosynthesis in plants is an example of
Ans: (a) (a) Anabolism
Q101. Endodermis occurs in (b) Catabolism
(a) Stems only (c) Both anabolism and catabolism
(b) Roots only (d) Neither anabolism nor catabolism
(c) Dicot stems and all types of roots Ans: (a)
(d) Both monocot and dicot stems as well as roots
Ans: (c) Q109. Cud-chewing animals are known as
(a) Frugivores
Q102. Endospermic seeds are found in
(b) Sanguivores
(a) Carica papaya
(c) Ruminant
(b) Dolichos lablab
(c) Gourd (d) Cannibals
(d) Pisum sativum Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q110. Deficiency of iron in human diet causes
Q103. In root, the pericycle is (a) Goitre
(a) Single layered (b) Scurvy
(b) Tow layered (c) Anaemia
(c) Three layered (d) Rickets
(d) Absent Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q111. Enzymes help in
Q104. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having
(a) Respiration
(a) Open vascular bundles
(b) Scattered vascular bundles (b) Digestion of food
(c) Well developed pith (c) Immune system
(d) Radially arranged vascular bundles (d) Reproduction
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

Q112. Food is normally digested in the Q119. Phenomenon which converts light energy into
(a) Liver chemical energy is
(b) Stomach (a) Respiration
(c) Small intestines (b) Photosynthesis
(d) Large intestines (c) Transpiration
Ans: (c) (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q113. Glucose is mainly absorbed in
(a) PCT Q120. Photosynthesis is a process
(b) DCT (a) Reductive and exergonic
(c) Henle's loop (b) Reductive and catabolic
(d) Nephron (c) Reductive, endergonic and catabolic
Ans: (a) (d) Reductive, endergonic and anabolic
Ans: (d)
Q114. Heightened emotion is caused by the
(a) Pituitary glands Q121. Photosynthesis takes place faster in
(b) Thyroid glands (a) Yellow light
(c) Adrenal glands (b) White light
(d) Salivary glands (c) Red light
Ans: (c) (d) Darkness
Ans: (b)
Q115. Main substance involved in transfer of electrons in
Q122. Plants absorb dissolved nitrates from soil and
photosynthesis is
convert them into
(a) Phytochrome
(a) Free nitrogen
(b) Cytochrome
(b) Urea
(c) FAD
(c) Ammonia
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Proteins
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q116. Man in the life cycle of Plasmodium is
Q123. Plants absorb most of the water needed by them
(a) Primary host
through their
(b) Secondary host
(a) Embryonic zone
(c) Intermediate host
(b) Growing point
(d) None of these
(c) Root hairs
Ans: (b)
(d) Zone of elongation
Q117. Mango contains vitamins Ans: (c)
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) B and E
Ans: (c)
Q118. O2 released in the process of photosynthesis

comes from
(a) CO2
(b) Water
(c) Sugar
(d) Pyruvic acid
Ans: (b)

Q124. Plants are killed in winter by frost because Q132.Fish respire through their
(a) No photosynthesis occurs at low temperature (a) nose
(b) Of desiccation (b) lungs
(c) Water in the plants freezes (c) gills
(d) Water in the plants evaporates (d) fins
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q125. Plants have ____________ while animals lack it. Q133. Which of the following are involved in the process
(a) Starch of breathing in humans?
(b) Cellulose (a) nervous system
(c) Protein (b) diaphragm
(d) Fat (c) rib muscles
Ans: (b) (d) All of these
Ans: (d)
Q126. Plants receive their nutrients mainly from
(a) Chlorophyll Q134. The diaphragm assists in
(b) Atmosphere (a) digestion
(c) Light (b) respiration
(d) Soil (c) circulation of blood
Ans: (d) (d) excretion of waste
Q127. Plants synthesise protein from Ans: (b)
(a) Starch Q135. The exchange of gases in mammals takes place in
(b) Sugar
the
(c) Amino acids
(a) larynx
(d) Fatty acids
(b) trachea
Ans: (c)
(c) alveoli
Q128. Pulses are a good source of (d) bronchi
(a) Carbohydrates Ans: (c)
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins Q136. Which of the following creatures has no blood but
(d) Vitamins respires?
Ans: (c) (a) Cockroach
Q129. The alimentary canal is usually longer in (b) Earthworm
(a) Carnivores (c) Fish
(b) Herbivores (d) Hydra
(c) Omnivores Ans: (d)
(d) Insectivores
Q137. A drop of blood contains
Ans: (b)
(a) about 10,000 cells
Q130. Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is (b) about 1,00,000 cells
(a) an enzyme (c) several million cells
(b) a protein (d) less than 25,000 cells
(c) a hormone
Ans: (c)
(d) a molecule with high energy bonds
Ans: (d) Q138. A man weighing 96 kg, consists of approximately
Q131. During the day time plants _______________ litres of water.
(a) take in oxygen and give out carbon dioxide (a) 501
(b) take in carbon dioxide and give out oxygen (b) 66.51
(c) take in nitrogen and give out oxygen (c) 821
(d) take in carbon dioxide and give out nitrogen (d) 421
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q139. A person having which of the following blood Q147. If we are to measure the length of blood vessels in
groups can receive blood of any group? our body, how many kilometres would it add up to?
(a) A (a) 10 km
(b) AB (b) 1,000 km
(c) B (c) 96,000 km
(d) O (d) 10,000 km
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q140. A person of which of the following blood groups Q148. Lungs are enclosed in
is called a universal donor? (a) pericardium
(a) O (b) peritoneum
(b) AB (c) pleural membrane
(c) A (d) none of these
(d) B Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q149. Lungs are situated in the
Q141. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to (a) abdominal cavity
the presence of (b) pericardial cavity
(a) haemoglobin (c) buccal cavity
(b) heparin (d) thoracic cavity
(c) fibrin Ans: (d)
(d) plasma
Ans: (b) Q150. Minute, circular discs floating in the blood, which
carry oxygen to the tissues, and carbon dioxide away
Q142. Blood haemoglobin has high affinity for
from them, are called
(a) CO2
(a) White blood corpuscles (WBC)
(b) CO
(b) Red blood corpuscles (RBC)
(c) O2
(c) Monophylls
(d) H
Ans: (b) (d) Erythrocytes
Ans: (b)
Q143. Ductless glands are known as
(a) exocrine glands Q151. The study of pollen grain is known as :
(b) endocrine glands (a) Palaeobotany
(c) tubular glands (b) Palynology
(d) alveolar glands (c) Pomology
Ans: (b) (d) Phonology
Ans: (b)
Q144. What happens during seed germination?
(a) Heat is liberated Q152. The branch of biology that deals with the study of
(b) Starch is synthesised trees is called:
(c) Fat is synthesised (a) Dendrology
(d) Light is absorbed (b) Palaeobotany
Ans: (a) (c) Taxonomy
Q145. Human blood contains _____________ percentage (d) Teratology
of plasma. Ans: (c)
(a) 35% Q153. Consider the following pairs:
(b) 40% 1. Entomology-Study of insects
(c) 50% 2. Mycology-Study of algae
(d) 65% 3. Pedology-Study of soils
Ans: (d) 4. Pharmacology Study of medicine and their effect
Q146. Human urine as compared to human blood is Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) hypotonic (a) 1 and 4
(b) hypertonic (b) 3 and 4
(c) isotonic (c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) all of these (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q154. Which of the following characteristics distinguish Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
man from other animals? (a) 1, 2 and 4
1. His capacity to adapt to the needs of the environment (b) 2 and 4
2. His curiosity
(c) 2 and 3
3. His blood groups
(d) 1 and 3
4. His DNA
Select the correct answer from the following: Ans: (d)
(a) 1, 3 and 4 Q159. Which of the following vertebrates are without
(b) 2 and 4
teeth?
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 2 1. Jawless fishes
Ans: (b) 2. Turtles and tortoises
3. Toads
Q155. The smallest living cell is that of a
(a) bacterium 4. Birds
(b) bread mold Codes:
(c) mycoplasma (a) 1, 2
(d) virus (b) 2, 3
Ans: (c) (c) 1, 4
Q156. Which of the following cell organelles are not (d) 2, 4
found in a bacterial cell? Ans: (c)
1. Glyoxysomes
2. Lysosomes Q160. Which of the following animals are dolphins not
3. Mitochondria closely related to?
4. Ribosomes (a) Whales
Select the correct answer using codes given below: (b) Porpoises
(a) 1 and 4 (c) Dugong
(b) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a) Q161. Which of the following animals have flippers?
Q157. A particular cell organelle is sometimes referred to (a) Tortoise
as the 'suicide bag' because it contains certain enzymes (b) Turtle
that can break down the cell components or even the (c) Water Snake
whole cell. (d) Tortoise and Turtle
Which one of the following is such an organelle?
Ans: (d)
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mesosome Q162. The largest of the living birds is
(c) Phagosome (a) cassowary
(d) Ribosome (b) albatross
Ans: (d)
(c) elephant bird
Q158. Consider the following statements and select the (d) ostrich
correct answer from the codes given below: Ans: (b)
1. Viruses are obligate parasites and cannot be cultured
on a synthetic medium Q163. The mammal that lays eggs is
2. The red snow phenomenon observed in some alpine (a) kangaroo
and arctic regions is caused by a lichen growing in these (b) duck-billed platypus
areas
(c) opossum
3. The red rust of tea is caused by a green alga
(d) otter
4. A solution of chlorophyll pigments looks red in
reflected light due to the phenomenon of diffraction. Ans: (a)

Q164. Deadliest venomous snakes of India are Q170. The tissue that is involved in the transport of food
1. King Cobra material in plants is called:
2. Python (a) parenchyma
3. Common Krait (b) phloem
4. Russel's Viper
(c) sclerenchyma
The correct response is
(d) xylem
(a) 1, 3, 4
Ans: (b)
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 Q171. The only connective tissue in which the cells occur
(d) 1, 2, 3 in groups or rows are
Ans: (b) (a) bone
Q165. Which one of the following marine animals is not (b) cartilage
a mammal? (c) tendon
(a) Sea-cow (d) ligament
(b) Sea-horse Ans: (c)
(c) Sea-lion
(d) River horse Q172. The life span of human erythrocytes is
Ans: (c) approximately
(a) 90 days
Q166. Sea -horse found in Marine National Park in Kutch
(b) 100 days
is a:
(a) shark (c) 120 days
(b) marine mammal (d) 150 days
(c) marine teleost Ans: (d)
(d) lobster
Q173. The phlegm that accumulates in the bronchi and
Ans: (c)
cleared during coughing is
Q167. Syncytium is formed by (a) stratified squamous epithelium
(a) primitive reticular cells (b) stratified columnar epithelium
(b) phagocytic reticular cells
(c) simple columnar ciliated epithelium
(c) endothelial cells
(d) pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
(d) sensory cells
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q168. The tissue that forms the basal framework of Q174. Ependymal cells lining the cavity of brain and
lymphoid organs, bone marrow and liver are spinal cord constitute
(a) lymphoid tissue (a) epithelioid tissue
(b) areolar tissue (b) ealse epithelium
(c) reticular tissue (c) mesothelium
(d) elastic tissue (d) endothelium
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
Q169. The cells that are directly concerned with
Q175. Chocolates can be bad for health because of a high
phagocytosis of foreign bodies in the reticuloendothelial
content of
system are
(a) Cobalt
(a) reticular cells
(b) monocytes (b) Nickle
(c) eosinophils and Basophils (c) Zinc
(d) macrophages (d) Lead
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q176. Consider the following statements: Q181. Following replacement of breast feeding by less
1. Normal diet should contain 75gm of fat. nutritive food, low in proteins and calories, infants
2. Fatty acids should be a part of human diet. below the age of one year suffer from:
3. The cells of the human body cannot synthesise any (a) kwashiorkor
fatty acids.
(b) marasmus
4. Deficiency diseases develop due to the absence of
unsaturated fatty acids called essential fatty acids. (c) rickets
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) pellagra
(a) 1, 2 Ans: (c)
(b) 2, 3
Q182. In countries where polished rise is the main cereal
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 4 in their diet, people suffer from
Ans: (b) (a) pellagra
(b) scurvy
Q177. Pernicious anaemia in humans is caused by the
(c) beriberi
deficiency of
(a) Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) (d) osteomalacia
(b) Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) Ans: (a)
(c) Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
Q183. Per cent oxygen in the exhaled air is
(d) Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)
(a) 0
Ans: (b)
(b) 6
Q178. Exposure to sunshine and diet rich in fish liver (c) 12
oils, oatmeal and sweet potatoes will not cause the
(d) 16
deficiency disease
Ans: (a)
1. Osteomalacia
2. Osteoporosis and frequent bone fractures Q184. In children the lungs are pale pink due to
3. Rickets (a) Rich blood supply
4. Fatty liver
(b) Greater binding affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen
(a) 1, 2
(c) Formation of a higher percentage of oxyhaemoglobin
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 3 as per higher metabolic rate
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) All of them
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q179. A vast proportion of our body's weight is made up Q185. When the oxygen to the tissues becomes
of
inadequate, the condition is called
(a) bones
(a) hypoxia
(b) water
(c) organs (b) anoxia
(d) skin, tissues and organs (c) asphyxia
Ans: (d) (d) dyspnoea
Ans: (c)
Q180. Corporate executives who work in top notch
companies and travel to their offices in early morning in Q186. During quiet inspiration, the air that remains
their air conditioned cars with tinted glasses spending occupying the mouth, pharynx, trachea and passages up
their entire day in their cabins are prone to suffer from
to terminal bronchioles forms
the deficiency of:
(a) 'Passive' dead space
(a) calcitonin
(b) cynacobalamin (b) 'Physiological' dead space
(c) tocopherol (c) 'Anatomical' dead space
(d) cholecalciferol. (d) 'Lobular' dead space
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)

Q187. Upon the entry of carbon dioxide in the red blood (c) Right auricle - right ventricle - pulmonary veins -
cells, H+ionsare formed at a very rapid rate, and yet the lungs - pulmonary artery - left auricle -left ventricle -
blood does not turn acid because aorta
(a) H+ ions are rapidly exchanged at the expense of (d) Right auricle - right ventricle - pulmonary artery -
HCO3-ions lungs - pulmonary veins - left auricle - left ventricle -
(b) H+ ions are rapidly removed and excreted in the aorta
urine Ans: (b)
(c) H+ ions are buffered by proteins of haemoglobin and Q193. The chamber of the mammalian heart from which
plasma deoxygenated blood is sent for oxygenation is
(d) H+ ions are buffered by proteins of haemoglobin and (a) right auricle
proteins and phosphates of plasma (b) right ventricle
Ans: (c) (c) left auricle
(d) left ventricle
Q188. Carbon dioxide entering the red blood corpuscles
Ans: (d)
from the tissues is partially taken up by haemoglobin to
form Q194. The vessels that supply blood to the heart are
(a) carboxyhaemoglobin (a) vasa vasorum
(b) carbonylhaemoglobin (b) cardiac
(c) carbaminohaemoglobin (c) coronoid
(d) carbomoylhaemoglobin (d) coronary
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q195. The wall of the left ventricle is much thicker than
Q189. The digestive and respiratory passages cross in the
that of right ventricle because
(a) pharynx
(a) it accommodates more blood
(b) larynx
(b) it receives oxygenated blood with tremendous force
(c) esophagus
from various parts of the body
(d) trachea
(c) it pumps oxygenated blood with tremendous force to
Ans: (b)
various parts of the body
Q190. The amount of air breathed in and out in a single (d) it is engineered to carry blood with a high quantum
quiet respiration is about of oxygen and nutrients Questions
(a) 250 ml Ans: (c)
(b) 500 ml Q196. Blood flows via the out flow tracts of the heart into
(c) 750 ml (a) aorta and carotid arteries
(d) 1000 ml (b) aorta, carotid and subclavian arteries
Ans: (d) (c) aorta and pulmonary artery
(d) both (b) & (c)
Q191. The chamber of the heart that receives
Ans: (b)
deoxygenated blood from the various parts of the body
is Q197. Out of 24 hours the human heart works, ventricles
(a) Sinus venous contact for
(b) Left auricle (a) 6 hours
(c) Right auricle (b) 9 hours
(d) Right venous (c) 11 hours
Ans: (d) (d) 12 hours
Ans: (b)
Q192. The route of circulation in the human heart
(a) Left auricle - right auricle - right ventricle - Q198. Impulses from the pace -maker cause the
pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary veins - Left (a) ventricles to contract
(b) auricles to contract
ventricle - aorta
(c) both the ventricle and auricle to contract
(b) Right auricle - left auricle - right ventricle -
(d) heart to relax
pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary veins -left
Ans: (b)
ventricle - aorta
Q199. The fluid reaching the distal convoluted tubule Q206. Vitamin D is manufactured by the activation of
from the ascending limb of Henle's loop is ergosterol by U.V light in the
(a) isotonic in respect of plasma (a) liver
(b) hypotonic in respect of plasma (b) skin
(c) hypertonic in respect of plasma (c) bone
(d) variable (d) muscle
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q200. Of the 125 ml of glomerular filtrate produces each Q207. Consider the following statements:
minute, the amount of urine formed is 1. In a resting neuron, there is difference in electrical
charge on either side of surface membrane called
(a) 1 ml/mt
potential difference.
(b) 1.5 ml/mt
2. It is due to unequal distribution of K+ ions and Na+
(c) 2.0 ml/mt
ions on either side if the membrane.
(d) 5.0 ml/mt
3. The Na+ concentration inside a cell is about 28 to 30
Ans: (b)
times > than it is outside
Q201. The substance which is reabsorbed as well as 4. The K+ ions concentration is about 14 times > outside
excreted by the kidney tubule is than inside.
(a) H+ Which of these above statements are correct?
(b) K+ (a) 1 only
(c) Na+ (b) 1, 2
(d) Creatinine (c) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (b) (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: (b)
Q202. When urine is passed out several -fold more than
in a normal subject, the condition is referred to as Q208. Consider the following statements:
1. Even when a nerve cell is not conducting an impulse,
(a) Diabetes mellitus
it is actively transporting K+ and Na+ ions in and out
(b) Diabetes insipidus
respectively against their concentration gradients at the
(c) Diabetes aqua
expense of energy
(d) Diabetes polydipsia
2. As a consequence of the operation of the Na- K pump,
Ans: (c)
there is a concentration gradient for Na+ and K+ ions.
Q203. The final concentration of the fluid to produce a 3. As a result, K+ diffuse out of the cell, and Na+ ions
markedly hypertonic urine takes place in into the cell.
(a) Loop of Henle 4. Eventually, there is difference in charge on either said
(b) Distal convoluted tubule of the membrane, positive inside and negative outside.
(c) Collecting tubule Which of the above statements is/are untrue?
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) 1 only
Ans: (c) (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4
Q204. The need to produce concentrated urine is (d) 4 only
detected in the brain is due to the increase in the Ans: (d)
concentration of
(a) Glucose in the blood
(b) K+ in the blood
(c) Na+ in the blood
(d) Carbonic acid in the blood
Ans: (c)
Q205. Skin becomes wrinkled in the old age due to
(a) loss of elastic tissue in the dermis
(b) considerable slag in the rate of dividing cells in the
stratum germinativum
(c) gradual loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer
(d) all of these
Ans: (b)

Q209. Consider the following statements: Q213. The connective tissue layer that surrounds each
1. When a nerve fibre is stimulated, a profound change individual fibre in the nerve is
is produced in the electrical properties of surface (a) epineurium
membrane and in steady potential. (b) perineurium
2. Upon excitation, the resting potentialis suddenly (c) perineural septum
changed. (d) endoneurium
3. It is due to sudden and several hundred -fold increase Ans: (d)
in permeability to Na+ ions.
4. With Na+ ions moving inside the point of stimulation, Q214. Spinal cord is a long narrow and almost cylindrical
the positive charge inside the nerve cell increases and structure that extends from the brain to the
reaches a peak called “action potential”. (a) coccygeal region
Which of the following statement are correct? (b) sacrum
(a) 1, 2, 3 (c) first lumbar vertebra
(b) 2, 3 (d) last lumbar vertebra
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 Ans: (c)
(d) 1, 2, 4
Ans: (d) Q215. The segment of a myofibril that is called a
sarcomere runs from
Q210. Consider the following statements:
(a) one Z-line to the next Z-line
1. Propagation of a nerve impulse in a myelinated nerve
fibre is different from that of unmyelinated fibre. (b) one A-band to the next A-band
2. The impulse actually travels by leaping through the (c) one H-zone to the next H-zone
nodes of Ranvier in an unmyelinated fibre (d) one end of a skeletal muscle to the opposite end
3. The local circuits occur only at the internodes and at Ans: (a)
each node, the action potential is boosted to the same
Q216. The H-disk in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
height by ionic mechanisms.
(a) the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-
4. In the rest of the internodes, such an exchange is not
band
possible due to the presence of myelin sheath acting as
an insulator. (b) the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-
Which of the above statements are incorrect? band Questions
(a) 1, 2 (c) the central gap between actin filaments extending
(b) 1, 3, 4 through myosin filaments in the A-band
(c) 2 only (d) birefringence of myosin filaments in the central
(d) 2, 3 portion of A-band
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q211. The white matter present in the brain and spinal Q217. The muscle fatigue occurs due to the release of
cord consists of (a) acetylcholine
(a) neuroglia (b) lactic acid
(b) myline sheath (c) adrenaline
(c) terminal arborizations of axons
(d) none of these
(d) cellular sheath of Schwann
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
Q212. The synaptic knobs represent the terminal endings Q218. Myosin bridges can be prevented from combining
of actin by two regulator proteins in resting muscle by
(a) the neuron (a) troponin
(b) the dendron (b) myofibril
(c) the axon (c) troponin and tropomyosin
(d) the telodendria (d) natural inhibiting proteins
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q219. Consider the following statements: Q224. The total number of ears bones are
1. Cross bridges can cause muscle contraction. (a) 2
2. They are able to oscillate back and forth and hook up (b) 4
with active sites on actin filaments (c) 6
3. The bridges enable the thin filaments to pull the thick
(d) 8
filaments by a kind of back and forth movement.
Ans: (c)
4. A single bridge thus hooks onto an active site, pulls the
thin filaments a short distance, then releases it and again Q225. Many persons, who are occupied with desk work
hooks on the next active site. for long hours, have a tendency to suffer from cervical
Which of the above statements are correct? spondylosis.
(a) 1, 2 This is caused due to decrease in the intervertebral disk
(b) 2, 3
space between
(c) 1, 2, 4
(a) 5, 6 and 7 cervicals
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: (c) (b) 6, 7 and 8 cervicals
(c) 7, 8 and 9 cervicals
Q220. Which term is the smallest subdivision in this
(d) all of these
group?
Ans: (a)
(a) Fibre
(b) Fibril Q226. Acetabulum is formed by the fusion of
(c) Filament (a) ilium and ischium
(d) Myosin (b) ischium and pubis
Ans: (c)
(c) ilium and pubis
Q221. Why can cardiac muscle fibres contract for longer (d) ilium, ischium and pubis
periods than skeletal fibres? Ans: (d)
(a) Cardiac muscle is self-excitatory
(b) Extracellular calcium partially controls the strength Q227. The bone that serves to transmit the weight of the
(and length) of contraction body to the ground and forms a strong lever for the
(c) Cisternae of T-tubules are more developed in cardiac muscles of the calf of the leg is
muscle (a) astragalus
(d) Cardiac muscle is uninucleate rather than (b) calcaneum
multinucleate (c) navicular
Ans: (a) (d) talus
Q222. One of the following statements about muscular Ans: (b)
responses is not true. Choose that one
Q228. While writing, the main bones in the hand that
(a) A muscle fibre contracts in all-or-none fashion
(b) There is a slight latent period that occurs between mainly help hold the pen in position are:
when the stimulus arrives at the muscle and when a (a) phalanges
muscle contracts. (b) carpals
(c) Muscles will add motor units to a contraction, (c) metacarpals
increasing the overall force of contraction (d) all of these
(d) When a person is fully at rest, none of the muscles are Ans: (a)
contracting in the body
Ans: (d) Q229. In the event of a fall of a woman in the bathroom,
the head of the femur separated off the bone. An X-ray
Q223. The bone that makes possible rotation of the neck
revealed that it did not fit into
is
(a) glenoid cavity of the plevis
(a) atlas vertebra
(b) axis vertebra (b) acetabulum of pelvis
(c) occipital condyles of the skull (c) obturator foramen of pelvis
(d) atlas vertebra and occipital condyles of the skull (d) pelvic cavity
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q230. The cow while standing up from the sitting Q236. Consider the following statements about
posture initially takes support and puts its body weight pollination.
on: 1. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to ovules in
(a) patellas of the forelegs the same flower or a different f lower is called
(b) shanks of the forelegs pollination.
2. The pollination by wind is called anemophily.
(c) both the forelegs
3. Pollination is a prerequisite for seed and fruit
(d) the patellas and shanks of both the fore and hind legs
development in all flowering plants.
Ans: (a)
4. Seeds may develop in some water ferns without
Q231. The testes normally descend into the scrotum pollination.
about Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 6 months into pregnancy (a) 1 and 3
(b) the time of birth (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 2
(c) the age of 3 months
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) the time of puberty
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Q237. During pregnancy, corpus luteum, having
Q232. Menopause usually occurs between secreted increasing quantities of progesterone that helps
(a) 30 and 35 years build up endometrium of the uterus, suddenly declines
(b) 35 and 40 years in functioning in the
(c) 40 and 45 years (a) 14th week
(d) 45 and 50 years (b) 16th week
Ans: (d) (c) 11th week
(d) 12th week
Q233. In humans, ovarian follicles reach maturity from Ans: (d)
the beginning of a menstrual cycle in
Q238. Plants that flower after reaching a certain stage of
(a) 5 to 7 days
development irrespective of the day length are called:
(b) 7 to 9 days
(a) Day-neutral plants
(c) 10 to 14 days
(b) Long-day-short-day plants
(d) 14 to 16 days (c) Negatively phototrophic plants
Ans: (c) (d) Long-day plants
Q234. Some plants develop fruit s without fertilization. Ans: (a)
This phenomenon is called Q239. The plants growing in temperate climates are
(a) apocarpy usually:
(b) apogamy (a) Short-day plants
(c) parthenocarpy (b) Day neutral plants
(d) syncarpy (c) Long-day plants
Ans: (c) (d) Long-day-short-day plants
Ans: (a)
Q235. The increase in population all over the world is
Q240. The effect of light on flowering plants is mediated
due to
through a photoreceptor compound. Which of the
(a) tremendous increase in birth rate
following is such a compound?
(b) significant decrease in death rate (a) Cytochrome
(c) gradual decrease in morbidity rate (b) Cryptochrome
(d) failure to adopt family planning contraceptive (c) Phytochrome
devices (d) Phycoerythrin
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q241. Which of the following statements are true? Q245. That genes control heredity through their control
1. Cytokinins promote stomatal opening on enzyme synthesis and that one gene controls the
2. Sprays of indole -3 acetic acid can inhibit premature sythesis of one enzyme - the one gene one enzyme
fruit fall hypothesis — was proposed by
3. The growth movements caused by a unilateral (a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Darwin
stimulus are known as nastic movements
(c) Mendel
4. The seeds of desert plants will not germinate unless
(d) Morgan
they have been subjected to a high temperature for some
Ans: (a)
time
Questions Select the correct answer from the following: Q246. Gregor Mendel is often referred to as the Father of
(a) 1, 2, and 4 Genetics since he first enunciated the Principles of
Heredity. His experimental material was
(b) 2 and 4
(a) fruit fly
(c) 1, 2, and 4
(b) bread mould
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) pea plant
Ans: (a) (d) rhesus monkey
Q242. Which of the following plant organ/s have Ans: (c)
determinate growth? Q247. Down Syndrome, a congenital genetic disorder in
1. Dicot leaves and internodes human beings, is cased by :
2. Fruits (a) a defective recessive gene in homozygous condition
3. Grass leaves and internodes (b) an extra x chromosome
4. Rhizomes and tubers (c) trisomy of chromosome 18
Select the correct answer from the following: (d) trisomy of chromosome 21
(a) 1 and 3 Ans: (d)
(b) 2 and 4 Q248. Consider the following human diseases:
(c) 1, 2, and 4 1. Anaemia
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 2. Haemophilia
Ans: (c) 3. Leukemia
4. Phenylketonuria
Q243. Consider the following pairs Plant hormone Which of the above diseases are hereditary in nature?
Function/Effect (a) 1, 2 and 3
1. Indole-3 acetic acid — Rooting in cuttings (b) 1 and 4
2. Gibberellic acid — Stomatal closure (c) 2 and 3
3. Ethylene — Fruit ripening (d) 2 and 4
4. Zeatin — Cell division Ans: (d)
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Q249. A white woman marries a black man. They have
Select the correct answer from the following: four children — 2 sons and 2 daughters. What
(a) 1 and 3 proportion of these chi 1dren is likely to be black
(b) 1, 2, and 4 (a) 25%
(c) 2 and 4 (b) 50%
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (c) 100%
Ans: (b) (d) none
Ans: (d)
Q244. Which of the following plant hormone was first
Q250. That some human diseases are genetically
isolated from a fungus?
controlled was first established by
(a) Ethylene
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Gibberellic acid
(b) A E Garrod
(c) Kinetin (c) Watson and Crick
(d) Zeatin (d) William Bateson
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q251. Which of the following genetic disorders in man Q256. Which of the following plant diseases are caused
are caused by a dominant gene? by viruses?
1. Edwards Syndrome 1. Aster yellows
2. Huntington's disease 2. Foot rot of paddy
3. Marfan Syndrome 3. Leaf curl of tobacco
4. Thalassemia 4. Little leaf of Sweet potato
Select the correct answer using codes given below: Which of the above disease/s is/are caused by the
(a) 1 and 3 bacteria?
(b) 1 and 4 (a) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
(d) 3 and 4
Q252. Consider the following plant diseases: Ans: (a)
1. Brown rot of potatoes.
Q257. Which of the following plant disease/s is/are
2. Citrus dieback
caused by fungi?
3. Tikka disease of peanut
1. Brown rot of potatoes
4. Tundu disease of wheat
Which of the above disease/s is/are caused by the 2. Foot rot of paddy
bacteria? 3. Heart rot of beets
(a) 1 and 3 4. Tikka disease of peanut
(b) 1 and 4 Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(c) Only 2 (a) Only 1
(d) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
Ans: (b) (c) 2 and 4
(d) Only 4
Q253. One of the greatest famines of the nineteenth
Ans: (c)
century suffered by the Irish people which led to over 1
million deaths due to starvation was caused by a fungal Q258. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
infection of the potato crop. The disease it caused was (a) Early blight of potatoes
(a) early blight of potatoes (b) Loose smut of wheat
(b) heart rot of potatoes (c) Red rot of sugarcane
(c) late blight of potatoes (d) Red stripe of sugarcane
(d) potato mosaic Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q259. The disease not transmitted by house - fly is -
Q254. The water core disease of apples is caused by
(a) cholera
(a) boron deficiency
(b) enteric fever
(b) bacterial infection
(c) dengue fever
(c) fungal infection
(d) dysentery
(d) high temperatures
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
Q260. Other than spreading malaria, Anopheles
Q255. The necrotic ring spot disease of stone fruits
(cherry, peach, plum, etc.) is caused by mosquitoes are also vectors of -
(a) a bacterium (a) dengue fever
(b) fungal infection (b) filariasis
(c) molybdenum deficiency (c) encephalitis
(d) virus (d) yellow fever
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)

Q261. Which of the following statements are not true in Q266. A simple sequence in which the grass grows, a
respect of HIV/AIDS transmission? cow eats the grass, a human eats the cow or drinks its
(a) HIV infection is usually spread by having sexual milk, is an example of -
(b) HIV frequently spreads among injection drug users (a) food chain
who share syringes. (b) food web
(c) Women can spread HIV to their babies during (c) food cycle
pregnancy, birth or breast feeding. (a) pyramid
(d) HIV spreads through casual contact such as sharing Ans: (a)
towels and bedding or via swimming pools or toilet seats Q267. In overpopulated parts of the world where there
Ans: (a) is shortage of food, the inhabitants should feed
predominantly on -
Q262. A group of diseases normally transmitted between
(a) rice, wheat and other food grains
vertebrate animals and man is -
(b) herbivores
(a) yellow fever, plague, taeniasis
(c) small carnivores
(b) plague, rabies, smallpox
(d) large carnivores
(c) ancylostomiasis, ascariasis, plague
Ans: (a)
(d) plague, rabies, taeniasis
Ans: (d) Q268. Which one of the following groups of organisms is
thermophilic in that they can tolerate and grow at fairly
Q263. The first effective vaccine against polio was high temperatures?
prepared by - (a) Certain bacteria and blue-green algae
(a) John Heynsham Gibbon (b) Loris, rhesus monkey and red kangaroo
(b) James Simpson (c) Llamas, camels and yaks
(c) Jonas E. Salk (d) Bison, musk-ox and racoon
(d) Robert Edwards Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q269. The density of population in a country is obtained
Q264. A doctor advises a patient to take plenty of citrus by counting the total number of individuals -
fruits, guavas, tomatoes and amlas over a period of two (a) in respect of fertile land area
months regularly. What do you think is the complaint of (b) in respect of total land area
the patient? (c) in respect of habitable and inhabitable areas
(a) Softness and pain in bones, bending of vertebral (d) per unit area
column Ans: (d)
(b) Gums spongy, swollen and bleed easily Q270. A powerful eye irritant present in smog is -
(c) Blurred vision, burning and dryness of eye and (a) ozone
tongue, cracking of skin of angle of mouth (b) nitric oxide
(d) Extreme weakness, swelling and pain in legs, loss of (c) peroxyacetyl nitrate
appetite, headache (d) sulphur dioxide
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q265. Which one of the following groups of diseases Q271. Coal burning power plants and factories are
spreads through mosquito bites among humans? responsible for about 86% of -
(a) Malaria, filariasis, poliomyelitis (a) carbon monoxide in the atmosphere
(b) Ancylostomiasis, ringworm, dengue fever (b) sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Dengue fever, viral encephalitis, yellow fever (c) chlorine in the atmosphere
(d) Filariasis, malaria, ascariasis (d) nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

Q272. Consider the following statements: Q277. The theory of spontaneous generation of life was
1. Malaria can be contained with the introduction of experimentally disproved by:
larvicidal fish, gambusia, in ponds, tanks and puddles. 1. Francesco Redi
2. Gambusia is highly specific in devouring larvae of 2. Lamark
female anopheline mosquitoes. 3. Leeuwenhock
Which of the above statements are true? 4. Louis Pasteur
(a) 1, 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(b) 1 only (a) Only 1
(c) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(d) Neither of the two (c) 1 and 4
Ans: (b) (d) Only 4
Ans: (c)
Q273. The theory of spontaneous generation of life was
proposed by: Q278. Who among the following demonstrated
(a) Aristotle experimentally that simple organic molecules like sugar
(b) Lamark s and amino acids could be produced from inorganic
(c) Leewen hock molecules if early earth atmosphere is created
(d) Louis Pasteur (a) Donald Brown
Ans: (a) (b) A.I. Oparin
(c) Oscar Miller
Q274. The atmosphere of the primitive earth before (d) Stanley Miller
origin of life consisted of: Ans: (d)
(a) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Ammonia, and Water vapour
(b) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen, and Water vapour Q279. The Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters
(c) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Water, and Carbon dioxide for the origin of species was proposed by:
(d) Ammonia, Water, Oxygen, and Hydrogen (a) Jean Lamark
Ans: (b) (b) J.B.S. Haldane
(c) August Weismann
Q275. That life arose from interactions of simple (d) Harold Urey
chemical compounds on primitive earth, the Ans: (a)
chemosynthetic theory of life, was proposed by:
(a) A.I. Oparin Q280. Which of the following drugs is not a
(b) Louis Pasteur hallucinogen?
(c) Charles Darwin (a) LSD
(d) Lamark (b) Heroin
Ans: (a) (c) Marijuana
(d) Mescaline
Q276. Consider the following statements: Ans: (b)
1. The atmosphere of the primitive earth was reducing
Q281. Alcohol is a common -
2. The primary source of energy for the chemosynthetic
(a) stimulant
reactions on earth that led to the origin of life was the
(b) depressant
solar energy
(c) hallucinogen
3. Liquid water did not exist on early earth
(d) none of these
4. Energy for the synthesis of organic molecules from
Ans: (b)
simple inorganic molecules on earth was provided by
lightening, ultra violet light, and cosmic rays Q282. Which of the following hallucinogens is taken by
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: smoking, chewing or sniffing?
(a) 1 and 2 (a) Mescaline
(b) 1 and 4 (b) LSD
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (c) Psilocybin (Mushroom)
(d) 1, 3, and 4 (d) Marijuana
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

Q283. Which of the following drugs cause death by Q289. The carbohydrate content in a hen's egg -
common respiratory failure due to overdose? (a) 0.0 g
(a) Marijuana (b) 0.5 g
(b) Reserpine (c) 1.3 g
(c) Heroin (d) 2.5 g
(d) Mathadrine Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q290. About 55 per cent of India's sheep population is
located in -
Q284. The excessive and chronic use of which of the drug
(a) North western region
cause uncontrollable trembling, unable to converse, and
(b) Temperate Himalayan region
a victim of terrifying hallucinations? (c) Southern region
(a) Ethanol (d) Eastern region
(b) Methanol Ans: (c)
(c) Isopropyl alcohol
Q291. Which of the following breeds of chic ken is the
(d) Codeine
most prolific egg layer in the world?
Ans: (a)
(a) Astro White
Q285. Which of the following drugs cause d elusions (b) Brahma
involving people's feelings more than their senses, and (c) Black Minorca
people feel that others are trying to injure them? (d) White Leghorn
(a) Cocaine Ans: (d)
(b) Marijuana Q292. The tallest breed of sheep in India is -
(c) Nicotine (a) Marwari
(d) Opium (b) Nellore
Ans: (b) (c) Kathiawari
(d) Rampur Bushair
Q286. Excessive/chronic use of which of the following Ans: (b)
drugs is the root cause of lung cancer, cough bronchitis,
Q293. Which of the following is a nonruminant?
emphysema, hypertension and cardiovascular
(a) Camel
symptoms?
(b) Swine
(a) Caffeine
(c) Goat
(b) Nicotine: cigarettes and chewing tobacco (d) Sheep
(c) Cocaine Ans: (b)
(d) Methadrine
Q294. Which of the following states is the largest
Ans: (b)
producer of coffee in India?
Q287. The total number of permanent incisors in the (a) Karnataka
upper jaw of the cattle is - (b) Kerala
(a) 0 (c) Orissa
(b) 2 (d) West Bengal
(c) 4 Ans: (a)
(d) 8 Q295. Study the following statements:
Ans: (a) 1. Tea plants thrive best in alkaline soils with rainfall
above 150 cm and temperature between 20 - 30°C
Q288. Such cattle where cows are high yielders of milk
2. The most important stimulant both in tea and coffee is
and bullocks are poor draft animals comprise - caffeine
(a) dual purpose breeds 3. Wine, a popular alcoholic drink, especially among
(b) milch breeds women, is prepared by distillation of fruit juices, mainly
(c) draught breeds grapes
(d) all of these 4. The drug cocaine is obtained from the roasted seeds of
Ans: (b) the cacao tree

Which of the above statement/s is/are not true? Q300. Fruits from which of the following plants are
(a) 1, 3, and 4 sources of commercial fibers?
(b) 2 and 4 1. Cotton
(c) 1 and 4 2. Coconut
(d) Only 2 3. Flax
Ans: (a) 4. Silk Cotton
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Q296. The processing of green tea involves brief heating
(a) 1 and 3
of the freshly picked leaves. What could be the possible
(b) 1 and 4
reason/s?
(c) 1, 2 and 3
1. To retain green colour of leaves
(d) 2 and 4
2. To give it a special flavour
Ans: (d)
3. To denature leaf enzymes for preventing fermentation
Which of the above reason/s is/are true? Chemistry
(a) Only 1
Q1. Which one of the following is a physical change?
(b) 1 and 3
(a) Burning of coal
(c) Only 2
(b) Burning of wood
(d) Only 3
(c) Heating of a platinum crucible
Ans: (d)
(d) Heating of potassium chlorate
Q297. The most important stimulant in tea leaves is - Ans: (c)
(a) brucine
Q2. Conversion of a substance directly from solid to
(b) caffeine
vapour state is known as
(c) phenylalanine
(a) Vaporisation
(d) theine
(b) Sublimation
Ans: (b)
(c) Decomposition
Q298. The International Rice Research Institute is based (d) Ionisation
in - Ans: (b)
(a) Australia
Q3. Gases have
(b) Mexico
(a) A definite shape but not volume
(c) Nigeria
(b) A definite volume and shape
(d) Philippines
(c) A definite volume but not shape
Ans: (d)
(d) Neither definite volume nor shape
Q299. Consider the following statements - Ans: (d)
1. Cuba is considered the sugar bowl of the world
Q4. The melting and boiling points of ionic solids are
2. Sugar was a rare commodity in Europe till the middle
(a) High
ages
(b) Low
3. Honey is a rich source of vitamins and minerals
(c) Very low
4. All green plants synthesize sugar that are
(d) Of intermediate range
subsequently converted into lipids, polysaccharides,
Ans: (a)
and/or proteins
Which of the above statement/s is/are true? Q5. The two elements that exist as liquids at 25°C are
(a) Only 1 (a) Mercury and lithium
(b) 1 and 3 (b) Mercury and caesium
(c) 2 and 3 (c) Bromine and mercury
(d) 2 and 4 (d) Mercury and argon
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q6. The point at which the solid, liquid and gaseous Q13. Alloys in which mercury is one of the metals are
forms of a substance co-exist is called its called
(a) Boiling point (a) Amalgams
(b) Melting point (b) Emulsions
(c) Triple point (c) Mixtures
(d) Freezing point (d) Solders
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q7. The so-called fourth state of matter refers to Q14. Colloids
(a) Mercury (a) Are true solutions
(b) LPG (b) Are suspensions of one phase in another
(c) Dry ice (c) Are two-phase systems
(d) Plasma (d) Contain only water soluble substances
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q8. Which of the following metals is in a liquid state at Q15. Colloids are purified by
normal room temperature? (a) Peptisation
(a) Sodium (b) Coagulation
(b) Radium (c) Condensation
(c) Gallium (d) Dialysis
(d) Silicon Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q16. Distillation at reduced pressure is used for liquids
Q9. Van der Waals equation explains the behaviour of which
(a) Mixture of gases (a) Have high boiling points
(b) Ideal gas (b) Have low boiling points
(c) Real gas (c) Have high volatility
(d) Water gas (d) Decompose before their boiling points
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q10. Which of the following is a mixture? Q17. For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour
(a) Gunpowder pressure of each component in solution is directly
(b) Iron sulphate proportional to its
(c) Brass (a) Molarity
(d) Dry ice (b) Mole fraction
Ans: (a) (c) Molality
(d) Normality
Q11. The PH value of a sample of multi-pledistilled
Ans: (b)
water is
(a) zero
(b) 14
(c) very near to zero
(d) very near to seven
Ans: (d)
Q12. Alloy steel containing chromium, to resist rusting,
is known as
(a) Wrought iron
(b) Cast iron
(c) Hard steel
(d) Stainless steel
Ans: (d)

Q18. The solubility of the alkali metal carbonates Q25. Isotopes of an element
(a) Decreases as we go down the group (a) Are physically identical to each other
(b) Increases as we go down the group (b) Are chemically identical to each other
(c) Increases at first and then decreases (c) Are not identical to each other
(d) Does not show regular variation (d) Have the same mass numbers
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q19. When two gases are mixed, the entroру Q26. Of all the gases present in the air, which one of the
(a) Remains constant following is the highest in percentage?
(b) Decreases (a) Carbon dioxide
(c) Increases (b) Hydrogen
(d) Becomes zero (c) Nitrogen
Ans: (c) (d) Oxygen
Q20. Which of the following has highest solubility in Ans: (c)
ionic solvent?
Q27. Of the following particles, the particle having the
(a) Silver iodide
least mass is
(b) Silver bromide
(a) Meson
(c) Silver chloride
(b) Neutron
(d) Silver fluoride
(c) Electron
Ans: (d)
(d) Proton
Q21. A fractionating column is a glass apparatus used to Ans: (c)
(a) Separate magnetic solids from nonmagnetic solids
Q28. The charge on the electron is
(b) Separate a mixture in water
(c) Separate two or more liquids (a) 1.6 × 10-19 C
(d) Extract oils from vegetable matter (b) 1.5 × 10-16 C
Ans: (c) (c) 21.6 × 10-19 C
(d) 1.6 × 1019 C
Q22. Producer gas is a mixture of Ans: (a)
(a) CO and H2
(b) CO and N2 Q29. The mass number of a nucleus is
(c) CH4 and H2 (a) Always less than its atomic number
(d) CO2 and H2 (b) The sum of the number of protons and neutrons
Ans: (a) present in the nucleus
(c) Always more than the atomic weight
Q23. The number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of a
(d) A fraction
solvent is called its
Ans: (b)
(a) Molality
(b) Molarity Q30. The mass number of an atom is equal to
(c) Normality (a) The number of protons
(d) Formality (b) The number of protons and electrons
Ans: (a) (c) The number of nucleons
Q24. Which of the following statements is correct? (d) The number of neutrons
I. German silver is an alloy of silver, copper and zinc Ans: (c)
II. There is no zinc in brass III. Bronze is an alloy of Q31. The mass of one Avogadro number of helium atom
copper and tin is
(a) I, II, and III (a) 1.00 g
(b) Only III (b) 4.00 g
(c) I and III (c) 8.00 g
(d) I and II (d) 6.02 × 1023 g
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q32. The maximum electron capacity of any orbital is Q39. For the dumb bell shaped orbital, the value of l is
(a) 2 (a) 3
(b) 6 (b) 1
(c) 14
(c) 0
(d) Cannot be determined unless the principal quantum
(d) 2
number is known
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q33. The names of the scientists, Newlands, Mendeleev Q40. Which quantum number cannot have an integral
and Meyer are associated with the development of value?
(a) Atomic structure (a) n
(b) Metallurgy (b) 1
(c) Periodic table of elements (c) m
(d) Discovery of elements
(d) s
Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
Q34. The nuclear particles that are assumed to hold
nucleons together are Q41. How many orbitals make up any s -sub level?
(a) Electrons (a) 1
(b) Positrons (b) 3
(c) Neutrons (c) 5
(d) Mesons (d) 7
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
Q35. The nucleus of a hydrogen atom consists of
(a) One proton Q42. According to Bohr's theory, an electron in one Bohr
(b) One proton + two neutrons stationary orbit can go to a higher stationary orbit
(c) One neutron only (a) By emission of electromagnetic radiation
(d) One electron only (b) Without any absorption or emission of
Ans: (a) electromagnetic radiation
Q36. A molecule whose electrons are distributed (c) With absorption of any electromagnetic radiation
unsymmetrical is said to be (d) With absorption of electromagnetic radiation of a
(a) Ionised particular frequency
(b) Non-ionised Ans: (d)
(c) Polar
(d) Non-polar Q43. According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, the
Ans: (c) angular momentum of the electron in the fourth orbit is
Q37. Bohr's theory of fixed orbits contradicts given by
(a) Coulomb's law (a) h/2p
(b) Planck's theory (b) 4h/p
(c) de Broglie relation (c) h/p
(d) Uncertainty principle (d) 2h/p
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q38. Evidence for the existence of energy level in atom is
Q44. According to Einstein's mass -energy relation
supplied by
(a) E = m2c
(a) Atomic numbers
(b) Atomic radii (b) E = mc
(c) Spectral lines (c) E = mc2
(d) Mass defects (d) E = vmc
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)

Q45. According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle; it Q52. There are two elements calcium (atomic number 20)
is not possible to determine and argon (atomic number 18) The mass number of both
(a) The position of the electron accurately the elements is 40. They are therefore known as
(b) The momentum of the electron accurately (a) isotones
(c) Simultaneously the position and momentum of an (b) isochores
electron accurately (c) isobars
(d) None of these
(d) isotopes
Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q46. The de Broglie equation is
Q53. “Plum Pudding Model” for an atom was proposed
(a) h/mv = 1
(b) hv = E2 - E1 by
(c) n 1 = 2d sin (a) Antoine Lavoisier
(d) c = hv (b) Robert Boyle
Ans: (a) (c) Ernest Rutherford
(d) J. J. Thomson
Q47. In which of the following groups, are the elements
Ans: (d)
written in the descending order of their respective
atomic weights? Q54. Aluminium is extracted from bauxite
(a) Nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, hydrogen (a) By reduction with carbon
(b) Oxygen, argon, nitrogen, hydrogen (b) By reduction with Mg
(c) Oxygen, nitrogen, helium, hydrogen (c) By reduction with CO
(d) Oxygen, nitrogen, helium, bromine (d) By electrolysis in molten cryolite
Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
Q48. Neutrons are obtained by
Q55. An element with atomic number 36 belongs to the
(a) Bombardment of radium with aparticles
(a) s-block
(b) Bombardment of beryllium with b-particles
(c) Radioactive disintegration of uranium (b) p-block
(d) None of the above (c) d-block
Ans: (c) (d) f-block
Ans: (b)
Q49. The atomic spectra of hydrogen are explained by
(a) Rutherford's model of the atom Q56. Atomic number of an element gives
(b) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity (a) The number of protons in its atom
(c) Pauli's exclusion principle (b) The number of nucleons in its atom
(d) Bohr's theory (c) The weight of the atom of the element
Ans: (d) (d) The total number of elementary particles in its atom
Q50. Which one of the following is the most Ans: (a)
characteristic property of an element? Q57. Corrosion of a metal occurs at the
(a) Density
(a) Anode
(b) Boiling point
(b) Cathode
(c) Mass number
(c) Both anode and cathode
(d) Atomic number
Ans: (d) (d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q51. A process of very slow regulated cooling is known
as Q58. Which of the following is the hardest element?
(a) Quenching (a) Copper
(b) Sedimentation (b) Diamond
(c) Annealing (c) Iron
(d) Diffusion (d) Silicon
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

Q59. Which of the following is not a compound of Q66. The element first detected spectroscopically in the
calcium? Sun's atmosphere is
(a) Gypsum (a) O2
(b) Marble (b) Ne
(c) Chalk (c) H2
(d) Molybdenum (d) He
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q60. Elements that show the properties of both metals Q67. Which of the following is incorrect?
and non-metals are called (a) Mercury: Hg
(a) Allotropes (b) Silver: Ag
(b) Metalloids (c) Sodium: Na
(c) Alloys (d) Potassium: Ka
(d) Colloids Ans: (d)
Ans: (b)
Q68. Which of the following is always found in a free
Q61. f-block elements are also called state in nature?
(a) Alkali metals (a) Gold
(b) Inner transition elements (b) Silver
(c) Transition elements (c) Sodium
(d) Transuranic elements (d) Copper
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q62. The ammonium ion is Q69. The melting point of copper is
(a) Square planar (a) 1083°C
(b) Tetrahedral (b) 732°C
(c) Square pyramidal (c) 327°C
(d) Trigonal pyramidal (d) 1835°C
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q63. The atomic weight of uranium is Q70. The most abundant rare gas in the atmosphere is
(a) 237 (a) He
(b) 238 (b) Nc
(c) 226 (c) Ar
(d) 242 (d) Xe
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q64. The difference between isotopes of an element is Q71. The most electronegative element among sodium,
due to the presence of a different number of bromium, fluorine and oxygen is
(a) Protons (a) Sodium
(b) Neutrons (b) Bromium
(c) Electrons (c) Fluorine
(d) Photons (d) Oxygen
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q65. The ejection of electrons when a metal surface is Q72. The most electropositive element among the
irradiated is called following is
(a) Black body radiation (a) Na
(b) Photoelectric effect (b) Ca
(c) Zeeman effect (c) K
(d) Atomic spectrum (d) Cs
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)

Q73. The most important ore of aluminium is Q80. Which among the following is not a noble gas?
(a) Bauxite (a) Argon
(b) Magnetite (b) Radon
(c) Neon
(c) Haematite
(d) Bromine
(d) Monazite Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
Q81. Which of the following does not belong to the
Q74. The most malleable metal is halogen family?
(a) Platinum (a) Chlorine
(b) Silver (b) Fluorine
(c) Bromine
(c) Iron
(d) Morphine
(d) Gold Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
Q82. Choose the correct statement.
Q75. The electron affinity for the inert gases is (a) Electronegativity increases down a group
(a) Zero (b) Electronegativity decreases down a group
(b) High (c) Electronegativity decreases from left to right along a
period
(c) Negative
(d) Electronegativity changes along a group, but remains
(d) Positive
constant along a period
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q76. The hydronium ion is Q83. Which of the following properties is not true for an
(a) H+ alkali metal?
(b) HO2 (a) Low electronegativity
(b) Low ionisation energy
(c) H2+
(c) Low atomic volume
(d) H3O+
(d) Low density
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q77. The members of a homologous series have Q84. The cause of periodicity of properties
(a) The same physical properties (a) Increasing atomic radius
(b) Different functional groups (b) Increasing atomic weights
(c) The same chemical properties (c) Number of electrons in the valency orbit
(d) The recurrence of similar outer electronic
(d) Different methods of preparation
configuration
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q78. The alkali metals have Q85. Which of the following statements about the
(a) Low ionization energy physical properties of metal is not correct?
(b) High electronegativities (a) All metals are solid except mercury
(c) High m.p. (b) Most metals are hard except sodium and potassium
(c) Metals are not malleable
(d) Electron configuration of ns2np1
(d) Most metals are ductile
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q79. The tendency for complex formation is maximum Q86. A single covalent bond
in (a) Is formed by the transfer of two electrons
(a) s-block elements (b) Exists between hydrogen and chlorine in an aqueous
(b) p-block elements solution, of hydrochloric acid
(c) Is longer than a double bond
(c) noble gases
(d) Does not require energy to disrupt it unlike an ionic
(d) d-block elements bond
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q87. Covalent bonds are mainly found in Q94. Most covalent compounds
(a) Organic compounds (a) Behave like electrolytes in the molten state
(b) Inorganic compounds (b) Have high melting and boiling points
(c) Electrolytes (c) Are hard substances because of strong covalent bonds
(d) None of the above (d) Are more soluble in non-polar solvents than in polar
Ans: (a) solvents
Q88. Sodium chloride, potassium chloride, magnesium Ans: (d)
oxide are examples of molecules with Q95. The electronic repulsion is maximum between
(a) Covalent bonding (a) Shared pair - shared pair
(b) Ionic bonding (b) Shared pair - lone pair
(c) Metallic bonding (c) Lone pair - lone pair
(d) Hydrogen bonding
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
Q89. The maximum number of covalent bonds formed
Q96. The energy released when an extra electron is
by nitrogen is
added to a neutral gaseous atom is called
(a) 1
(a) Bond energy
(b) 2
(b) Electron affinity
(c) 3
(c) Ionization potential
(d) 4
Ans: (d) (d) Electronegativity
Ans: (b)
Q90. With increasing bond order, stability of a bond
(a) Decreases Q97. Which of the following characteristics is not typical
(b) Increases of ionically bonded crystals?
(c) Remains unchanged (a) Has no sharp melting point
(d) None of these (b) Cleave into definite cleavage planes
Ans: (b) (c) Conducts when melted
(d) Shatters when crystal is distorted
Q91. Which of these substances exhibits the weakest
Ans: (a)
intermolecular forces?
(a) NH3 Q98. Which of the following is not characteristic of a p
(b) H2O bond?
(c) He (a) A p bond results from lateral overlap of atomic
(d) HCI orbitals
Ans: (c) (b) A p bond may be formed by the overlap of p - or d -
Q92. Pick the wrong statement: hydrogen bonding orbitals
results in (c) p bonds are obtained from hybrid orbitals
(a) Increased solubility in water (d) p bonds is formed when a bond already exists
(b) Higher Van der Waal's forces Ans: (c)
(c) Molecular association Q99. Which of the following is not characteristic of
(d) Abnormal boiling point resonance?
Ans: (b)
(a) The canonical structures have the constituent atoms
Q93. The carbon -carbon bond length is shortest in in the same relative positions
(a) Ethane (b) They have nearly the same energy
(b) Ethylene (c) They have the same number of unpaired electrons
(c) Benzene (d) The actual structure can be represented on paper
(d) Acetylene using the conventional symbols
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

Q100. The chemical name of quartz is Q107. A catalyst is a substance which
(a) Calcium oxide (a) Changes the equilibrium of a reaction so that the
(b) Calcium phosphate concentration of the product increases (b) Increases the
(c) Sodium phosphate rate of reaction and increases the equilibrium
(d) Sodium silicate concentration of products
(c) Hastens the attainment of equilibrium
Ans: (d)
(d) Increases the activation energy
Q101. The chemical name of table salt is Ans: (c)
(a) Potassium chloride
Q108. A catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the
(b) Sodium chloride reaction with regard to
(c) Calcium chloride (a) Quality
(d) Sodium hyposulphate (b) Chemical composition
Ans: (b) (c) Physical state
(d) Quantity and chemical composition
Q102. The chemical name of vitamin C is
Ans: (d)
(a) Citric acid
(b) Ascorbic acid Q109. All the following are examples of chemical change,
(c) Oxalic acid except
(a) Magnetising of iron nails
(d) Nitric acid
(b) Rusting of iron rods
Ans: (b)
(c) Digestion of food
Q103. The commercial name for calcium hydride is (d) Souring of milk
(a) Lime Ans: (a)
(b) Hydrolith Q110. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(c) Slaked lime (a) Burning of coal
(d) Calgon (b) Conversion of water into steam
Ans: (b) (c) Digestion of food
(d) Burning of paper
Q104. The molecular formula of phosphorus is Ans: (b)
(a) P1
(b) P2 Q111. Many microbes can effect the chemical process of
(a) Dehydration
(c) P3
(b) Decomposition
(d) P4
(c) Fermentation
Ans: (d)
(d) Polymerisation
Q105. Chlorine atom becomes a chloride ion by Ans: (c)
(a) Losing an electron
(b) Gaining an electron
(c) Sharing its electron with another element
(d) Gaining a neutron
Ans: (b)
Q106. A catalyst
(a) Alters the velocity of a reaction
(b) Increases the velocity of a reaction
(c) Decreases the velocity of a reaction
(d) Starts a reaction
Ans: (a)

Q112. The high reactivity of fluorine is due to Q119. Hydrogen and chlorine react vigorously in the
(a) Its high electronegativity presence of light (explosively) due to the formation of
(b) Small size of flourine atom (a) Hydrogen-free radicals
(c) Availability of d-orbitals (b) Chlorine-free radicals
(d) Strong F-F bond (c) Hydrogen chloride molecule
Ans: (a) (d) Both hydrogen- and chlorine-free radicals
Ans: (b)
Q113. The metal that does not give H2 on treatment with
dilute HCl is Q120. Hydrogen diffuses . . . . . . . . . . chlorine
(a) Zn (a) Faster than
(b) Fe (b) Slower than
(c) At the same rate as
(c) Ag
(d) None of these
(d) Ca
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q121. Information about the order of reaction is obtained
Q114. The metal that is used as a catalyst in the
from its
hydrogenation of oils is
(a) Reaction rate
(a) Ni
(b) Molecularity
(b) Pb
(c) Rate equation
(c) Cu (d) Half-life period
(d) Pt Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q122. Iron rusts at the area
Q115. Which of the following is a chemical change? (a) Cathodic area
(a) Evaporation of water (b) Anodic area
(b) Burning of candle (c) Both cathodic and anodic areas
(c) Glowing of an electric bulb (d) None of the above
(d) Liquefaction of air Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q123. Silver halides are used in photographic plates
Q116. Acid and alcohol react to form because they are
(a) Aldehyde and water (a) Oxidised in air
(b) Ketone and water (b) Colourless
(c) Acid anhydride and water (c) Easily soluble in a hypo solution
(d) Ester and water (d) Readily reduced by light
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q117. Why does milk curdle? Q124. The photo -oxidation process is initiated by
(a) Due to fermentation of lactose (a) Heat
(b) Due to reaction of microbes (b) Light
(c) Catalyst
(c) Due to overheating
(d) Oxygen
(d) Due to fungus growth
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q125. The process of elimination of water from any
Q118. Camphor can easily be purified by the process of
system is called
(a) Sublimation
(a) Oxidation
(b) Distillation
(b) Reduction
(c) Crystallisation (c) Dehydration
(d) Sedimentation (d) Evaporation
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)

Q126. The weight of a rusted iron object compared to Q133. Diamond is the form of carbon that is
that of an unrusted one is (a) Crystalline
(a) Appreciably more than (b) Amorphous
(b) The same as (c) Chemical
(c) Less than (d) Alkaline
(d) More or less the same as Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q134. Enzymes are
Q127. When a salt dissolves in water (a) Carbohydrates
(a) Entropy decreases (b) Proteins
(c) Fatty acids
(b) Entropy increases
(d) Nucleic acids
(c) Free energy increases
Ans: (b)
(d) Heat is liberated
Ans: (b) Q135. Enzymes are sensitive to
(a) Heat
Q128. When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, the gas (b) pH
evolved is (c) Poisons
(a) Oxygen (d) All three
(b) Hydrogen Ans: (d)
(c) Chlorine
Q136. Enzymes belong to the category of
(d) None of these
(a) Proteins
Ans: (b)
(b) Lipids
Q129. Which of the following can be purified by the (c) Carbohydrates
electrolytic method? (d) Steroids
(a) Sodium (Na) Ans: (a)
(b) Copper (Cu) Q137. The chief constituent of gobar gas is
(c) Boron (B) (a) Methane
(d) Chlorine (C12) (b) Ethane
Ans: 129 (c) Propane
(d) Chlorine
Q130. Which of the following cannot be purified by
Ans: (a)
sublimation?
(a) Iodine Q138. The hardest form of carbon is
(b) Camphor (a) Coke
(c) Citric acid (b) Graphite
(d) Naphthalene (c) Diamond
Ans: (c) (d) Charcoal
Ans: (c)
Q131. Carbon occurs in nature in the purest form as
(a) Diamond Q139. Charcoal is
(a) Amorphous
(b) Graphite
(b) Crystalline
(c) Carbon black
(c) Hygroscopic
(d) Coal
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q132. Denaturation of a protein is caused by Q140. Coke is obtained from coal by
(a) Heat (a) Distillation
(b) Acid (b) Fractional distillation
(c) High salt concentration (c) Destructive distillation
(d) All of the above (d) Cracking
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q141. Diamond is an allotrope of Q148. Which hydrocarbon is formed by the action of
(a) Tin sodium on ethyl iodide?
(b) Silicon (a) Methane
(c) Sulphur (b) Ethane
(d) Carbon (c) Ethylene
Ans: (d) (d) Butane
Ans: (d)
Q142. Diamond is hard because
(a) It has strong covalent bonds Q149. Which of the following statements is not true
(b) Discrete molecules of carbon are held by strong about diamonds?
Vander Waal’s forces (a) It is the purest form of carbon
(c) It involves Van der Waal's forces (b) It is the hardest naturally occurring substance
(d) Covalent bonds are directional unlike ionic bonds (c) It is a good conductor of electricity
Ans: (a) (d) Artificial diamonds can be prepared by subjecting a
solution of pure carbon in iron to very high pressures
Q143. Oils and fats are
and temperatures
(a) Glyceryl esters of higher fatty acids
Ans: (c)
(b) Acetyl esters of higher fatty acids
(c) Ethyl esters of fatty acids Q150. Amino acids are the building blocks of
(d) Methyl esters of fatty acids (a) Vitamins
Ans: (a) (b) Starch
(c) Proteins
Q144. Oils and fats are obtained from (d) Lipids
(a) Animal sources Ans: (c)
(b) Vegetable sources
(c) Synthesis Q151. In preference to nitrogen -oxygen mixture (present
(d) Both animal and vegetable sources in air), a helium -oxygen mixture is used by divers in
Ans: (d) deep sea because helium
(a) is less toxic than nitrogen
Q145. The shape of a carbon molecule is (b) can readily mix with oxygen than nitrogen
(a) Linear (c) is lighter than nitrogen
(b) Planar (d) is less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high pressure
(c) Cubical under the sea
(d) Tetrahedral Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
Q152. The medicines are most effective, if they are
Q146. A dark purple compound used as an antiseptic administered in the
and disinfectant is (a) colloidal state
(a) Potassium nitrate (b) solid state
(b) Sodium thiosulphate (c) solution state
(c) Potassium permanganate (d) gaseous state
(d) Calcium phosphate Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q153. The increasing amount of CO2 in the atmosphere
Q147. In a chemically pure state, diamonds are is slowly raising its temperature because it absorbs
(a) Monochromatic (a) the infrared part of the solar radiation
(b) Polychromatic (b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) Colourless (c) all the solar radiations
(d) None of these (d) the water vapour of the air
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)

Q154. Consider the following gases: Q159. Stranger gas is
1. Nitrous oxide (a) argon
2. CFCs (b) neon
3. Methane (c) nitrous oxide
4. Water vapour (d) xenon
Ans: (d)
The Green House Gases (GHGs) are:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q160. Oxidation is a process which involves the
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Loss of electrons
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. Gain of oxygen
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Gain of electrons
4. Loss of oxygen
Ans: (a)
The correct answers are:
Q155. Common salt is obtained from sea water by the (a) 1 and 2
process of (b) 2 and 4
(a) sublimation (c) 2 and 3
(b) evaporation (d) 3 and 4
(c) crystallisation Ans: (c)
(d) filtration Q161. Consider the following statements:
Ans: (b) 1. The nuclear forces are short range forces.
2. Alpha rays emitted by a radionuclide are helium
Q156. Consider the following processes: nucleus.
1. Evaporation 3. Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves.
2. Fractional distillation 4. Beta rays emitted by a radionuclide are negatively
3. Distillation 4. Filtration The process(es) involved in the charged particles.
refining of crude oil is/ are: The correct statements are:
(a) 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Q162. The active substance present in 'dettol’ is
Q157. The elements 30Si14, 31P15 and 32516 are called
(a) acetone
(a) isotones (b) hydrogen peroxide
(b) isobars (c) DDT
(c) isotopes (d) chloroxylenol
(d) isomers Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
Q163. Arsenic concentration has been on an increase in
Q158. The elements present in the largest amounts in the ground water of certain areas in Bihar and West
rocks and minerals are: Bengal due to:
1. Silicon 1. acid rain
2. excessive pumping of ground water
2. Oxygen
3. industrial pollution
3. Hydrogen
4. leaching of agricultural land
4. Gold The correct statements are:
The correct causes may be:
(a) 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)

Q164. The sources of sulphur dioxide may be: The two most abundant gases in the atmosphere are:
1. burning of coal (a) 1 and 3
2. solid municipality waste disposal (b) 2 and 4
3. burning of diesel (c) 3 and 4
4. volcanoes
(d) 1 and 4
The correct sources are:
Ans: (c)
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Q170. Consider the following gases:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Neon
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Chlorine
Ans: (b)
3. Carbon dioxide
Q165. The fuel -substance that causes minimum 4. Bromine
atmospheric pollution is The gas(es) which is/are not present in normal samples
(a) hydrogen of air is/are:
(b) kerosene oil
(a) 1
(c) coke
(b) 2 and 4
(d) gasoline
Ans: (a) (c) 3
(d) 4
Q166. Fog is a colloidal solution of
Ans: (b)
(a) liquid in gas
(b) solid in gas Q171. Consider the following statements:
(c) gas in solid 1. Detergents do not produce lather with hard water
(d) gas in liquid 2. Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and
Ans: (a) hydrogen
Q167. Very often, the farmers add lime to the soil before 3. Methane is the chief constituent of CNG
ploughing because 4. LPG contains mainly n-butane
(a) high concentration of lime aids the plant growth 5. The correct statements are:
(b) lime takes up the extra moisture of the soil (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) the soil becomes soft and it becomes easy to plough
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) lime decreases the acidity of the soil
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (d)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q168. Consider the following statements. Ans: (c)
1. Ozone is an allotropic form of oxygen
2. Phosphorus is present in DNA and RNA Q172. Consider the following statements:
3. Halogens occur in free state in nature. 1. Carbyne is an allotrope of carbon.
4. The compounds of chlorine are used as cooling agents. 2. Gasoline, used as a fuel in motor vehicles is a mixture
The correct statements are: of petrol and alcohol.
(a) 1 and 4 3. Petroleum is also known as 'liquid gold'.
(b) 2 and 4
4. The various components of crude oil are separated by
(c) 3 and 4
fractional distillation.
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d) The correct statements are:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q169. Look at the following gases:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Carbon dioxide
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Helium
3. Nitrogen (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Oxygen Ans: (b)

Q173. Consider the following statements: Q179. 'Chlorination' is
1. Methyl alcohol is added to denature ethyl alcohol. 1. A process of converting chlorides into chlorine
2. Ethyl alcohol is also called grain alcohol. 2. Adding small amounts of chlorine to impure water
3. Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether are isomers. 3. A chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed
4. Swine flu is a viral disease, 4. An addition reaction of ethylene and chlorine
The correct statements are: The correct statements are:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
Q180. The greatest number of compounds are formed by
Q174. Diamond is chemically
the element
(a) a mixture of metal carbonates (a) hydrogen
(b) pure carbon (b) carbon
(c) a pure form of sand (c) oxygen
(d) a mixture of calcium and magnesium phosphates (d) nitrogen
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q175. Cooking gas supplied in cylinders by gas agencies Q181. Consider the following statements:
is 1. Mercury metal exists as a liquid at room temperature.
1. In the form of a liquid 2. The property of metals by which they can be beaten
2. In the form of a gas into thin sheets is called malleability
3. A mixture of hydrocarbons 3. Neutral fats such as butter and vegetable oils are
4. A heterogeneous solution mostly triglycerides.
The correct statements are: 4. The size of an atom is of the order of 10 - 15 m.
(a) 1 and 3 The correct statements are:
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (a) (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
Q176. LPG is a mixture of
Q182. Nitrogen
(a) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
1. Is non-essential for the animal bodies
(b) butane and propane
2. In air dilutes oxygen which, otherwise, is very active
(c) methane and ethylene in the pure form
(d) carbon dioxide and oxygen 3. Makes oxygen soluble in blood
Ans: (b) 4. Is present in DNA and RNA
Q177. Chemically, dry ice is The correct statements are:
(a) ice formed from pure distilled water (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) solid carbon dioxide (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) solid sulphur dioxide (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(d) ice kept at sub-zero temperatures
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
Q183. The production of ammonia is important because
Q178. Animal charcoal is obtained by
it is used in the
(a) the destructive distillation of bones
(a) manufacture of proteins by polymerization
(b) burning the bones of animals in contact with air (b) preparation of soaps
(c) burning the flesh of animals (c) manufacture of artificial foods
(d) burning the bones of animals out of contact with air (d) production of fertilizers
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

Q184. The bacteria responsible for ‘nitrogen fixation’ is The correct statements are:
found in the roots of (a) 1 and 2
(a) grass (b) 2 and 4
(b) citrus plants (c) 3 and 4
(c) leguminous plants (d) 1 and 4
(d) neem tree
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q191. The process used in the desalination of sea water
Q185. The substance that contains the maximum amount
is
of nitrogen is
(a) urea (a) osmosis
(b) ammonium sulphate (b) reverse osmosis
(c) ammonium nitrate (c) electrophoresis
(d) ammonium chloride (d) distillation
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q186. Urea is widely used as a fertilizer because it Q192. Consider the following methods by which gene
(a) is an organic compound therapy can be performed:
(b) contains very high amounts of nitrogen 1. By introducing a new gene into the body
(c) is soluble in water
2. By the use of stem cells
(d) mixes easily with soil
3. By delivery of genes using gold nanoparticles
Ans: (b)
The correct methods could be:
Q187. Ammonia is (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Made up of nitrogen and hydrogen (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Acidic in nature (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Prepared by the Haber process
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Soluble in water
Ans: (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 4 Q193. The natural substance from which energy can be
(b) 2, 3 and 4 harnessed, and is essentially made up of only one
(c) 1, 3 and 4 element is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) petroleum
Ans: (c)
(b) coal
Q188. Laughing gas is (c) water (in dams)
(a) NO (d) air (in wind mills
(b) N203 Ans: (b)
(c) N20
(d) N205 Q194. Tetraethyl lead (TEL) is added to petrol to
Ans: (c) (a) prevent its freezing
(b) increase its boiling point
Q189. Lime water contains
(a) sodium hydroxide (c) increase its flash point
(b) calcium hydroxide (d) increase its anti-knocking rating
(c) sodium carbonate Ans: (d)
(d) calcium chloride Q195. Artificially, gasoline is prepared by an industrial
Ans: (b)
process known as
Q190. The pH value of 12 may be of an aqueous solution (a) Sabatier and Sendren's process
of (b) Friedel-Crafts reaction
1. Sodium hydroxide (c) Fischer-Tropsch process
2. Lithium hydroxide (d) Haber's process
3. Sodium chloride
Ans: (c)
4. Hydrogen chloride
Q196. Gasoline is Q201. Paracetamol
1. Same as diesel oil 1. Relieves body pain
2. Same as petrol 2. Is an antibiotic
3. Obtained from natural gas 3. Is a sulpha drug
4. Obtained from crude oil 4. Is an antipyretic drug
The correct answers are: The correct answers are:
(a) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q197. Liquid hydrocarbons are converted to low Q202. Chloromycetin is an
molecular weight gaseous hydrocarbons by a process (a) antiseptic
known as (b) antidepressant
(a) hydrogenation (c) analgesic
(b) reforming (d) antibacterial
(c) cracking Ans: (d)
(d) reduction
Ans: (c) Q203. Serpasil is
(a) a tranquilizer
Q198. The plants popularly known as 'petro crops' are
(b) an antibiotic
rich in
(c) produced by micro-organisms
1. Carbohydrates
(d) a mordant dye
2. Hydrocarbons
Ans: (a)
3. Proteins
4. Lipids Q204. The compound used as an antimalarial drug is
The correct answer is: (a) chloroquine
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) penicillin
(b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) hydroquinone
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) aspirin
(d) 2 and 4 Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Q205. Chemically aspirin is
Q199. Alloy steel containing chromium to resist rusting (a) phenol
is known as (b) salicylic acid
(a) wrought iron (c) acetyl salicylic acid
(b) cast iron (d) benzoic acid
(c) hard steel Ans: (c)
(d) stainless steel
Ans: (d) Q206. Which disease can not be treated at all with any of
the drugs known thus far
Q200. The substances used in the manufacture of (a) Malaria
stainless steel are (b) Lyme
1. Chromium (c) Tuberculosis
2. Iron (d) HIV
3. Copper Ans: (b)
4. Steel
The correct answers are: Q207. The acid that can be used as a hypnotic is
(a) 1 and 4 (a) tartaric acid
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) benzoic acid
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (c) barbituric acid
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) acetic acid
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)

Q208. Anemia occurs due to the lack of the element Q214. While cooking food, the compounds lost to the
(a) iodine maximum extent are
(b) calcium (a) fats
(c) potassium (b) carbohydrates
(d) iron (c) proteins
Ans: (d) (d) vitamins
Ans: (d)
Q209. The drug, reserprine is used to
Q215. Excessive consumption of ethanol ca uses major
(a) cure arthritis
damage to the
(b) alleviate pain
(a) kidneys
(c) reduce high blood pressure
(b) lungs
(d) reduce high palpitation
(c) heart
Ans: (c) (d) liver
Q210. Acetyl salicylic acid is Ans: (d)
1. Used as a tear gas Q216. Cholesterol
2. Aspirin 1. Is a type of chlorophyll
3. A pain killer 2. Is a derivative of chloroform
4. A sedative 3. Is a fatty alcohol found in animal fats
The correct answers are: 4. Causes hypertension
(a) 1 and 4 The correct answers are:
(b) 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4
Ans: (c) (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q211. Consider the following biomolecules:
Q217. Denatured alcohol
1. Vitamin A
1. Is an impure form of ethanol
2. Enzyme
2. Is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous
3. Testosterone
substances
4. DNA
3. Contains impurities
The biomolecules that are made in the human body are: 4. Is very unsafe to consume
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only The correct answers are:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c) (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q212. The substance most commonly used as a food
preservative is
(a) sodium bicarbonate
(b) tartaric acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) benzoic acid
Ans: (d)
Q213. The most abundant source of iron is
(a) milk products
(b) green vegetables
(c) eggs
(d) beans
Ans: (b)

Q218. Ethyl alcohol is commonly made unfit for drinking The correct answers are:
by the addition of (a) 1 and 3
(a) potassium cyanide (b) 2 and 4
(b) methyl alcohol (c) 3 and 4
(c) chloroform (d) 1 and 2
(d) potassium chloride Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q225. The statement that is NOT correct is
Q219. The poisonous substance that is the main (a) The breaking of complex and big molecules into
constituent of tobacco is simpler and smaller molecules by micro-organisms is
(a) morphine called fermentation.
(b) aspirin (b) Whisky contains high percentage of methanol.
(c) nicotine (c) Root beer does not contain alcohol.
(d) reserpine (d) Alcoholic fermentation involves the conversion of
Ans: (c) sugars into alcohol by the use of micro-organisms.
Ans: (b)
Q220. The main active constituent of tea and coffee is
(a) nicotine Q226. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is acidic in nature
(b) chlorophyll because the salt undergoes
(c) caffeine (a) dialysis
(d) aspirin (b) hydrolysis
Ans: (c) (c) electrolysis
Q221. The substance that DOES NOT contain silver is (d) photolysis
(a) German silver Ans: (b)
(b) horn silver Q227. The number of ions in 1 M aqueous s 0lution of
(c) ruby silver Ca3(PO4)2 will be
(d) lunar caustic (a) 5
Ans: (a) (b) 11
Q222. The compound that IS NOT responsible for acid (c) 13
rain is (d) 2
(a) nitrogen dioxide Ans: (a)
(b) nitrogen pentoxide Q228. Ions moving towards the cathode during
(c) Sulphur dioxide electrolysis of an aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2 are
(d) carbon monoxide (a) OH
Ans: (d) (b) H+
Q223. The substance whose aqueous solution would be (c) Ca2+
a better conductor of electricity than water is (d) 02
(a) cane sugar Ans: (a)
(b) glucose Q229. Electroplating can be carried out for
(c) common salt 1. Preservation
(d) ethyl alcohol 2. Decoration
Ans: (c) 3. Protection from corrosion
Q224. During electrolysis, the cations and anions of the The correct statement(s) is/are:
electrolyte are (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Discharged (b) 1, 2 and 3
2. Hydrolysed (c) 2 and 3 only
3. In motion (d) 1 and 3 only
4. Hydrated Ans: (b)

Q230. The process of electroplating involves The correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) electrolysis (a) 1 only
(b) dialysis (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) osmosis (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) decomposition (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q231. Antioxidants help a person maintain good health Q236. The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
because they (a) mm of Hg
(a) prevent the vitamins deficiency. (b) milligram perdecilitre
(b) prevent excessive oxidation of glucose and other (c) parts per million
carbohydrates. (d) grams per liter
(c) neutralise the free radicals formed in the body during Ans: (b)
metabolism.
(d) activate certain genes in the body cells which help Q237. The most abundant carbohydrate present in blood
delay the ageing process. is
Ans: (c) (a) glucose
(b) lactose
Q232. Cellulose is (c) starch
1. a polypeptide (d) cellulose
2. a polysaccharide Ans: (a)
3. a polyester
4. present in plants Q238. The covalent bond that is repeatedly present
5. The correct statement(s) about cellulose is/are between different amino acid residues in a protein is
(a) 1 only called
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) p-bond
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) hydrogen bond
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) peptide bond
Ans: (b) (d) metallic bond
Ans: (c)
Q233. The enzyme that hydrolyses cane sugar to glucose
and fructose is Q239. Enzymes contain
(a) lipase 1. Peptide bonds
(b) invertase 2. Amino acids
(c) zymase 3. Halogens
(d) diastase 4. Fatty acids
Ans: (b) The correct answers are:
(a) 1 and 4
Q234. Table sugar is
(a) glucose (b) 1,3 and 4
(b) sucrose (c) 1 and 2
(c) maltose (d) 2, 3 and 4
(d) lactose Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q240. The hormone insulin is chemically a
Q235. Consider the following statements: (a) fat
1. Sugar chars on heating. (b) lipid
2. On heating, sugar loses water. (c) protein
3. Sugar is a carbohydrate. (d) carbohydrate
4. Table sugar is made up of glucose and fructose. Ans: (c)

Q241. The compound that is not a natural product is Q248. The boiling point of water, on the Kelvin scale of
(a) pinene temperature is-K
(b) citral (a) 100
(c) camphor (b) 273
(d) styrene (c) 373
Ans: (d) (d) 212
Ans: (c)
Q242. Compound having phenylpropanoid origin is
called Q249. In the process of dialysis, used on patients with
affected kidneys, the phenomenon involved is
(a) an alkaloid
(a) diffusion
(b) a terpene
(b) absorption
(c) a lignin
(c) osmosis
(d) a flavonoid
(d) electrophoresis
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q243. Very abundantly occurring plant products are Q250. The point at which the solid, liquid and gaseous
(a) tannins forms of a substance co-exist is called its
(b) lignins (a) boiling point
(c) alkaloids (b) melting point
(d) flavonoids (c) triple point
Ans: (b) (d) freezing point
Ans: (c)
Q244. The term ‘Cynogenesis’ describes the release of
(a) hydrogen cyanide (HCN) Q251. Consider the following changes:
(b) hydrochloric acid (HCl) 1. Curdling of milk
(c) hydrogen peroxide (H202) 2. Sublimation of camphor
(d) hydrogen sulphide (H2S) 3. Drying of paint
Ans: (a) 4. Oxidation of SO2 to SO3
The chemical changes are:
Q245. Serpasil is obtained from the (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) plant Rauwalfia serpentine (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) cinchona tree (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) extracts of tobacco leaf (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) extracts of ginger root Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q252. The catalytic power of enzymes is due to
Q246. Structurally, glycogen is a (a) the presence of amino acids in their structures
(a) polysaccharide (b) their high molecular weight
(b) polypeptide (c) their ability to lower the activation energy of the
(c) polynucleotide reaction
(d) polyphenol (d) their limited solubility in water and other solvents
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q253. Consider the following statements:
Q247. Substances containing all the four elements:
1. Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium bromide and
carbon, hydrogen nitrogen and oxygen are 1. Morphine
lime
2. Nucleic acids
2. Toothpastes contain calcium carbonate
3. Starch
3. Zinc amalgam is used in dental fillings
4. Quinine 4. Liquid sodium is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors
Select the correct answer by using the code below, The correct statements are:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)

Q254. The main constituents of biogas are The chemicals used as dry cleaning agent(s) is/are
(a) methane and hydrogen (a) 1 only
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (b) 2 only
(c) butane, propane and nitrogen (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) carbon dioxide and methane (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q255. The ultra violet radiations of the Sun do not reach Q260. Consider the following statements:
the Earth because the upper layers of the atmosphere 1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic
contain 2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks.
(a) oxygen 3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones
(b) helium and teeth.
(c) ozone 4. Citric Acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in
(d) hydrogen our nutrition.
Ans: (c) The correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q256. The correct statement is (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Two Isotones always have the same atomic number (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) Two isotopes always have the same mass number (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Two isobars always have the same atomic number Ans: (a)
(d) Two isobars always have the same mass number
Q261. The process of changing of one element into
Ans: (d)
another is called
Q257. The radioactive pollution may result from: (a) radioactive decay
1. medical waste (b) transmutation of the elements
2. coal ash (c) covalent bond formation
3. production of nuclear arsenal (d) hybridization
4. mining of uranium Ans: (b)
5. decommissioning of nuclear weapons Q262. Cooking oil can be converted into vegetable ghee
The correct causes are: by the process of
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. hydrogenation
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2. distillation
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 3. crystallisation
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 4. reduction
Ans: (b) The correct processes are:
(a) 1 and 4
Q258. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 4
1. Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant
(c) 1 and 3
while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) 3 and 4
2. Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperatures
Ans: (a)
and at low pressures.
3. Chlorofluorocarbons are air pollutants. Q263. Structurally silk is
The correct statement(s) is/are: (a) a polyamide
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) a polyester
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) an enzyme
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) a nucleic acid
(d) 3 only Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q264. The gas inside an electric bulb is
Q259. Consider the following chemicals: (a) air
1. Benzene (b) oxygen
2. Carbon tetrachloride (c) nitrogen
(d) carbon dioxide
3. Sodium carbonate
Ans: (c)
4. Trichloroethylene
Q265. In order to prevent the corrosion of iron pipes, Q272. Photographic plates are covered with black paper
they are often coated with a layer of zinc. This process is because
termed as (a) the cellulose acetate of the paper must remain fresh
(a) electroplating (b) sunlight is easily absorbed by black paper and it helps
(b) annealing develop the film
(c) galvanization (c) the silver bromide present on the plate is very
sensitive to light and black paper prevents contact with
(d) vulcanization
light
Ans: (c)
(d) the conversion of silver bromide to metallic silver is
Q266. The main chemical substance present in the bones essential
and teeth of animal is Ans: (c)
(a) sodium chloride Q273. Philosopher’s wool contains zinc as its
(b) sugar (a) oxide
(c) calcium phosphate (b) bromide
(d) calcium sulphate (c) nitrate
Ans: (c) (d) sulphide
Ans: (a)
Q267. A catalyst is a substance which
(a) stops a chemical reaction Q274. Another name of RDX is
(b) helps initiate a reaction (a) cyanohyrin
(c) increases the speed of a reaction (b) dextran
(c) cyclonite
(d) decreases the speed of a reaction
(d) dynamite
Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q268. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter Q275. Containers for carrying strong acids are made of
and in coal mines is (a) platinum
(a) carbon dioxide (b) brass
(b) methane (c) copper
(c) ethane (d) lead
(d) carbon monoxide Ans: (d)
Ans: (b)
Q276. Haemoglobin is
Q269. The food item that is not a good source of 1. The colouring matter of leaves of plants
nutritional calcium is 2. The colouring matter of blood
(a) ragi 3. A compound that is highly coloured
(b) skimmed milk 4. A compound that contains iron
(c) rice The correct answers are:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(d) egg
(b) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q270. Vinegar is acidic in nature due to the presence of (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) vanillic acid Ans: (b)
(b) lactic acid Q277. The substances that cause air pollution are
(c) hydrochloric acid 1. Smoke
(d) acetic acid 2. Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (d) 3. Argon
4. Carbon monoxide
Q271. The acid present in lemons and oranges is
(a) acetic acid (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) hydrochloric acid (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) citric acid (c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) oxalic acid (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)

Q278. Sweat contains Q285. Hypo, used in photography, is chemically
(a) pure water (a) silver bromide
(b) water, salt and waste matter (b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) phosphoric acid (c) sodium phosphate
(d) calcium phosphate and water (d) silver nitrate
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q279. Antidote for lead poisoning is
Q286. The compounds responsible for causing “socks” to
(a) nickel
stink are
(b) cisplatin
1. Butyric acid
(c) white of egg
2. Dimethyl sulphide
(d) EDTA
Ans: (d) 3. 2-Heptanone
4. 2-Nonanone
Q280. Both rubies and sapphires contain 5. 2-Octanone
(a) silicon dioxide Which compound(s) is/are present in the “socks stink”?
(b) lead tetroxide
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) aluminium oxide
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) boron nitride
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
(d) 1, 4 and 5
Q281. Dissolved oxygen (DO) should not be less than Ans: (a)
_____________ mg/L of water.
(a) 14 Q287. Match the spice in List I with the plant part in List
(b) 3 II and select the correct answer from the codes given
(c) 5 below the lists.
(d) 2 List I - (Spice) List II - (Plant part used)
Ans: (c) A. Cinnamon 1. Fruit
B. Pepper 2. Flower bud
Q282. The substances that can be used as explosives are
1. phosphorous trichloride C. Clove 3. Stem
2. mercuric oxide D. Turmeric 4. Stem bark
3. trinitrotoluene Codes:
4. nitroglycerine ABCD
The correct answers are: (a) 4 1 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 and 4 Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Q288. Persons in asbestos factories are affected by air
Q283. Gunpowder consists of a mixture of pollution, the most affected part of their body is the
(a) potassium nitrate and TNT (a) eye
(b) Sulphur, sand and charcoal (b) throat
(c) nitre, Sulphur and charcoal (c) lungs
(d) TNT and charcoal
(d) skin
Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q284. Szent-Gyorgyi was awarded a Nobel Prize for
isolating vitamin C from Q289. The Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI, India)
(a) oranges (a) is located in Delhi
(b) lemon (b) belongs to Cipla Pharmaceutical Ltd., Mumbai
(c) amla (c) is located in Lucknow
(d) chillies (paprika) (d) is a private laboratory
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q290. Absolute alcohol is Q297. The most commonly used substances in
1. Pure ethanol fluorescent tubes are
2. 95% alcohol and 5% water (a) sodium oxide and argon
3. 200% proof (b) sodium vapour and neon
4. Rectified spirit (c) mercury vapour and argon
The correct answers are: (d) mercuric oxide and neon
(a) 1 and 2 Ans: (c)
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 Q298. Radiocarbon dating is used to estimate the ages of
(d) 2 and 3 (a) babies
Ans: (c) (b) fossils
(c) rocks
Q291. Formalin is an aqueous solution of (d) ancient buildings
(a) formaldehyde Ans: (b)
(b) flourescein
(c) formic acid Q299. The substance that is least prone to catch and
(d) furfural spread fire is
Ans: (a) (a) nylon
(b) terycot
Q292. For rural electrification and domestic cooking, the
(c) cotton
most appropriate and economical would be
(a) biogas (d) polyester
(b) nuclear energy Ans: (c)
(c) electricity Q300. Emeralds contain the element
(d) wind mills (a) carbon
Ans: (a) (b) silica
Q293. The substance coated on plastic tape recorder (c) beryllium
tapes is (d) gold
(a) zinc oxide Ans: (c)
(b) magnesium oxide Physics
(c) iron sulphate
(d) iron oxide Q1. A block of wood is floating in a lake.
Ans: (d) The apparent weight of the floating block is
(a) Zero
Q294. Of the following commonly used materials, the
one that is not an alloy is (b) Equal to its true weight
(a) steel (c) More than its true weight
(b) brass (d) Less than its true weight
(c) bronze Ans: (a)
(d) diamond Q2. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform
Ans: (d) management field. It experiences
Q295. The substance that can be used as an explosive is (a) A force and a torque
(a) DDT (b) A force but not a torque
(b) ozone (c) A torque but not a force
(c) TNT (d) Neither a force nor a torque
(d) buckminsterfullerene Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q3. A moving body on Earth ordinarily comes to rest by
Q296. The ‘IC’ chips used in computers are made of itself because of the
(a) chromium (a) Law of inertia
(b) iron oxide (b) Forces of friction
(c) alumina (c) Conservation of momentum
(d) silicon (d) Gravity
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)

Q4. An object moving around in a circle is moving with Q11. Pick out the vector quantity
a (a) Energy
(a) Uniform velocity (b) Angular momentum
(b) Uniform speed (c) Angle
(c) Variable velocity
(d) None of these
(d) Variable speed
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
Q5. As the train starts moving, a man sitting inside leans Q12. The flying of birds is a proof of Newton’s
backwards because of (a) First law
(a) Inertia of rest (b) Second law
(b) Inertia of motion (c) Third law of motion
(c) Moment of inertia (d) Both Second and Third laws
(d) Conservation of mass Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q13. The horse pulls the cart because of
Q6. Choose the only scalar quantity from the following:
(a) The force that the horse exerts on the ground
(a) Energy
(b) The force that the horse exerts on the cart
(b) Torque
(c) Momentum (c) The force that the ground exerts on the horse
(d) Force (d) The force that the cart exerts on the horse
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q7. Choose the only vector quantity from the following: Q14. When milk is churned, the cream from it is
(a) Energy separated due to
(b) Length (a) Gravitational force
(c) Density (b) Centrifugal force
(d) Torque
(c) Frictional force
Ans: (d)
(d) Heat
Q8. If a bomb is released from a plane moving with Ans: (b)
uniform velocity, then by the time the bomb reaches the
ground, the plane will be Q15. A ball moving with uniform velocity comes to rest
(a) Vertically above the bomb in a distance of 72 m in 6 s. Its initial velocity and
(b) Ahead of the bomb retardation are
(c) Behind the bomb (a) 12 m/s and 2 m/s2
(d) Ahead or behind, depending on its velocity (b) 12 m/s and 4 m/s2
Ans: (a) (c) 24 m/s and 8 m/s2
Q9. If the distance between two charges is halved, then (d) 24 m/s and 4 m/s2
the force between them becomes Ans: (d)
(a) Half
Q16. A car starts from rest and moves on a straight road
(b) Double
(c) Four times with a uniform acceleration of 10 m/s2 for the first 10 s.
(d) One-fourth During the next 10 s, the car move s with the velocity it
Ans: (c) has attained. What is the total distance covered by the car
in 20 s?
Q10. Pick out the scalar quantity
(a) Force (a) 500 m
(b) Pressure (b) 1000 m
(c) Velocity (c) 1,500 m
(d) Acceleration (d) 2,000 m
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)

Q17. A cyclist moves due east at 8 km/h for half an hour Q22. A small mass is placed on a turntable that is rotating
and then turns exactly south-wards for another half an at 45 r.p.m. The acceleration of the mass is
hour at 6 km/h. The average velocity of the cyclist for the (a) Greater the closer the mass is to the centre of the turn-
period is table
(b) Greater the farther the mass is from the centre
(a) 5 km/h
(c) Independent of the location of the mass
(b) 7 km/h
(d) Zero
(c) 10 km/h Ans: (b)
(d) 14 km/h
Q23. A spring balance A and a beam balance B are used
Ans: (a)
to weigh an object at different points on Earth. It will be
Q18. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that observed that
(a) Necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the (a) The readings of A and B will be different at different
horizontal component of the weight of the train points of the Earth.
(b) The readings of A will be the same but the readings
(b) Frictional force can be avoided between the tracks
of B will be different at different places.
and wheels
(c) Both A and B will have the same reading at all points
(c) Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the on the Earth.
horizontal component of the weight of the train (d) The readings of A will be different but those of B will
(d) The train may not fly off in the opposite direction be the same at different points on the Earth.
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q19. The speed of a motor car changes from 18 km/h to Q24. A motor running on electricity at the rate of 400 W
72 km/h in 5 s. Its acceleration is raises a block of weight 120 N. if the block moves 8 m
vertically in 4 s, the efficiency of the motor is
(a) 6 m/s2
(a) 24%
(b) 5 m/s2 (b) 30%
(c) 4 m/s2 (c) 48%
(d) 3 m/s2 (d) 60%
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q20. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Q25. A moving bullet hits a solid target resting on a
(a) The mass of a body is not the same as its weight frictionless surface and gets embedded in it. What is
conserved in this process?
(b) Mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas
(a) Both momentum and kinetic energy
weight is a force
(b) Kinetic energy alone
(c) Mass of a body varies from place to place but its (c) Momentum alone
weight remains constant (d) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(d) In the MKS system, mass is expressed in kilogram Ans: (c)
and weight in newton
Q26. A particle of mass m moves in a circular path of
Ans: (c) radius r at constant speed v. Its KE is
Q21. A block of mass m is pulled along a surface as (a) mv2/r
shown. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the (b) ½ Iw
(c) ½ mv2
block and the surface is m and the tension in the rope is
(d) ½ mrw2
T. Ans: (c)
The acceleration of the block is
Q27. Conservation of energy means that
(a) a = T cos q/mg
(a) Energy can be created as well as destroyed
(b) a = T cos q/mgm
(b) Energy can be created but not destroyed
(c) a = T cos q/m + mmg (c) Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed
(d) None of the above (d) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

Q28. With increase of temperature, the frictional force Q34. In the arrangement shown below, two trucks A and
acting between two surfaces B are held in position with spring compressed. When
(a) Increase they are released and the spring has fallen away, A is
(b) Remain the same found to be moving to the left at 2 m/s.
(c) Decreases The energy stored in the compressed spring was
(d) becomes zero (a) 12 J
Ans: (b) (b) 24 J
Q29. A block P released from the top of a smooth inclined (c) 18 J
plane slides down the plane. Another block Q is dropped (d) 36 J
from the same point and falls vertically downwards. Ans: (b)
Which one of the following statements will be true if the
Direction: In the following question, a statement of
friction offered by air is negligible?
Assertion (A) is given followed by corresponding
(a) Both blocks will reach the ground at the same time
Reason
(b) Block P will reach the ground earlier than block Q
(R), just below it. Read the statements carefully and mark
(c) Both blocks will reach the ground with the same
the correct answer:
speed
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) Block Q will reach the ground with a higher speed
than block P explanation of A.
Ans: (c) (b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
Q30. A car and lorry are both moving with equal kinetic (c) If A is true but R is false
energy. If equal breaking force is applied on both, then
before coming to rest the Q35. Assertion (A) A body can have energy without
(a) Car will cover a greater distance momentum.
(b) Lorry will cover a greater distance Reason (R) Internal energy is present in a body.
(c) Both will cover the same distance Ans: (a)
(d) The distance covered by them will depend only on
Q36. Gravitational constant (G) is an example of
their respective velocities
(a) Non-dimensional constant
Ans: (c)
(b) Dimensional constant
Q31. The nucleus of an atom consists of (c) Numeric constant
(a) Protons + Electrons (d) Quantity without dimensions
(b) Only Protons Ans: (b)
(c) Protons + neutrons + electrons
(d) Protons and neutrons Q37. The value of the universal gravitational constant, G
Ans: (d) is
(a) 6.67 × 1011 Nm2/kg2
Q32. Which of the following type of radiation does not (b) 6.67 × 10+9 Nm2/kg2
originate within the nucleus ? (c) 6.67 × 10–9 Nm2/kg2
(a) Alpha (d) 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2
(b) Beta Ans: (d)
(c) Gamma
(d) X - rays Q38. An artificial satellite stays in the orbit around the
Ans: (d) Earth because
(a) The Earth’s gravity does not act on the satellite due to
Q33. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant
magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity the great distance between them
of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a (b) The Earth’s attraction produces the necessary
plane. It follows that centripetal acceleration
(a) Its velocity is constant (c) The Earth’s attraction is balanced by the attraction of
(b) Its acceleration is constant other planets
(c) Its kinetic energy is constant (d) There is an engine in the satellite that constantly
(d) It moves in a circular path applies an upward force to balance its weight
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)

Q39. Average density of the Earth Q45. A hydrogen filled balloon rises in air because
(a) Is directly proportional to g (a) The atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude
(b) Is inversely proportional to g (b) The acceleration due to gravity decreases with
(c) Does not depend on g altitude
(d) Is a complex function of g (c) The density of air decreases with altitude
Ans: (c)
(d) The buoyant force exerted by the air on the balloon is
Q40. Gravitational potential has the dimensions of greater than the weight of the balloon
(a) M0L1T–2 Ans: (d)
(b) M0L2T–2
(c) M1L2T–2 Q46. A large ship can float but a steel needle sinks
(d) M1L1T–2 because of
Ans: (b) (a) Viscosity
Q41. How far away from the surface of the Earth does (b) Surface tension
the acceleration due to gravity become ½ of its value at (c) Density
the surface of Earth? It is at a (d) None of these
(a) Distance equal to radius Ans: (d)
(b) Distance equal to half the radius
Q47. A rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(c) Distance equal to twice the radius
(a) Mass
(d) Distance equal to 0.414 times the radius
Ans: (d) (b) Energy
(c) Linear momentum
Q42. Two planets have the same density of matter, such (d) Angular momentum
that their masses are proportional to the cube of their
Ans: (c)
radii.
The ratio of their acceleration due to gravity on their Q48. A shell, initially at rest suddenly explodes into two
surfaces is equal fragments A and B. Which one of the following is
(a) r2/r1 observed?
(b) (r1/r2)2 (a) A and B move in the same direction with the same
(c) r1/r2
speed
(d) (r2/r1)2
(b) A and B move in the same direction with different
Ans: (d)
speeds
Direction: In the following question, a statement of (c) A and B move in opposite directions with the same
Assertion (A) is given followed by corresponding speed
Reason (R), just below it. Read the statements carefully
(d) A and B move in opposite directions with different
and mark the correct answer:
speeds
explanation of A. Ans: (c)
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct Q49. A small weight put on the pressure cooker increases
explanation of A. the pressure of the steam because
(c) If A is true but R is false
(a) It is air tight
Q43. Assertion (A) Gravity and gravitation are one and (b) The area of contact is very small
the same thing. (c) The density of metal is very high
Reason (R) Both represent force of attraction. (d) The pressure builds up irrespective of the weight
Ans: (e) placed
Q44. A bomb, initially at rest, explodes into a large Ans: (b)
number of tiny fragments. The total momentum of all the
Q50. A sprayer works on the principle expounded by
fragments
(a) Is zero (a) Newton
(b) Is infinity (b) Archimedes
(c) Depends on the total mass of all the fragments (c) Boyle
(d) Depends on the speeds of various fragments (d) Pascal
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)

Q51. At high altitudes it is difficult to cook eggs or Q55. Water has maximum density at
vegetables properly because of (a) Room temperature
(a) High boiling point of water and low atmospheric (b) 0°C
pressure (c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(b) Low boiling point of water and low atmospheric
Ans: (c)
pressure
(c) Low value of acceleration due to gravity Q56. When a ship enters a sea from a river
(d) High atmospheric pressure and low billing point of (a) It rises a little
(b) It sinks a little
water
(c) It remains at the same level
Ans: (b)
(d) It rises or sinks depending on the material it is made
Q52. Of the four locations mentioned below, the highest of
inside temperature will be attained in the pressure Ans: (a)
cooker operated with the pressure valve open Q57. A ball is moving with a speed v towards north,
(a) At sea level collides with an identical ball, moving with the same
(b) At the top of Mt Everest speed towards east. After the collision, the two balls stick
(c) At a place in a valley below sea level together and move towards north –east. The speed of the
(d) In an aeroplane flying at a height of 10,000 m with combination is
(a) 2v
inside pressure maintained at the sea level
(b) 3v
Ans: (c)
(c) v
Q53. The ink of a pen leaks out in an airplane because (d) v/2
(a) Atmospheric pressure increases Ans: (c)
(b) Pressure of ink inside is more than the ambient Q58. A body of mass M traveling with velocity v strikes
pressure body of mass M at rest. If the two bodies stick together
(c) High speed of the aeroplane during the collision, the loss of KE in the collision is
(d) Temperature difference (a) ½ initial KE
Ans: (b) (b) initial KE
(c) All the initial KE
Q54. The Leaning Tower of Pisa does not fall because (d) No loss of KE
(a) It is tapered at the top Ans: (a)
(b) It covers a large base area Q59. A cylindrical block of wood floats in water with
(c) Its centre of gravity remains at the lowest position four-fifth of its volume submerged in water. The relative
(d) The vertical line through the centre of gravity of the density of wood is
tower falls within its base (a) 0.8
Ans: (d) (b) 0.9
(c) 1.0
(d) 1.2
Ans: (a)
Q60. A man carrying a load on his back bends forward
because of one of the following reasons:
(a) To adjust the centre of gravity of the system such that
the vertical line through the centre of gravity passes
within the base
(b) The man feels lighter because of greater reaction
(c) To prevent the load from slipping over and falling
down
(d) To keep the centre of gravity of the system outside
the body
Ans: (a)

Q61. In an inelastic collision, state which of the following Q67. A fresh egg sinks in pure water but floats in salty
statements is true: water. This is because
(a) Momentum is conserved and kinetic energy is (a) Saline water is denser than pure water
conserved. (b) Saline water is lighter than pure water
(b) Momentum is not conserved and kinetic energy is (c) The viscosity of saline water is higher than that of
conserved. pure water
(c) Momentum is conserved and kinetic energy is not (d) The surface tension of saline water is lower than that
conserved. of pure water
(d) Momentum is kinetic energy are not conserved. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q68. A particle of mass m is moving along a straight path
Q62. When a ship floats on water through the origin of coordinates with a velocity v. The
(a) It displaces no water angular momentum of the particle about the origin
(b) The mass of water displaced is more than the mass of (a) mv
the ship (b) Depends on its distance from origin
(c) The mass of water displaced is equal to the mass of (c) Is zero
the ship (d) Changes from positive to negative as it passes
(d) The mass of water displaced is less than the mass of through the origin
the ship Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q69. A liquid flows through a capillary tube.
Q63. When a small spherical body falls in a viscous fluid,
Then the velocity of the liquid is
its speed increases first, then deceases and eventually it
(a) Maximum at the walls of the tubs
acquires a constant speed called the terminal speed. The
(b) Constant at all points in the cross section of the tube
terminal speed depends upon
(c) Maximum along the axis of the tube
(a) The density and viscosity of the fluid
(d) Independent of the pressure-head
(b) The density of the body
Ans: (c)
(c) The diameter of the body
(d) All the above parameters Q70. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be
Ans: (d) explained on the basis of
Q64. Which of the following illustrations is not based on (a) Sudden change in wind direction
the principle of pressure? (b) Buoyancy of air
(a) Swelling of raisins in water (c) Turbulence caused by wind
(b) Collecting lotion with an eye dropper (d) Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) Bursting of a cycle tube in summer Ans: (d)
(d) Rise I water in a drinking straw Q71. A molecule is
Ans: (a) (a) A class of organic compounds
Q65. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating (b) The smallest unit of a substance that retains the
in a water tank. If the stones are unloaded into the water, properties of the substance
the level of water in the tank (c) The spectrum of a substance
(a) Will remain unchanged (d) A small mass
(b) Will rise Ans: (b)
(c) Will fall Q72. Metals are good conductors of electricity because
(d) Will rise till half the number of stones are unloaded (a) The contain free electrons
and then will begin to fall (b) The atoms are lightly packed
Ans: (c)
(c) They have high melting point
Q66. A cube of wood supporting a block of mass 200 (d) All of the above
grains just floats in water. When the block is removed, Ans: (b)
the cube rises by 2 cm. What is the size of the cube?
Q73. Pa (Pascal) is the unit for
(a) 6 cm
(a) Thrust
(b) 8 cm
(b) Pressure
(c) 10 cm
(c) Frequency
(d) 12 cm
Ans: (c) (d) Conductivity
Ans: (b)
Q74. The oil in the wick of an oil lamp rises up due to (b) Is used up to increase the kinetic energy of the
(a) Pressure difference molecules
(b) Capillary action (c) Is used up to increase the kinetic energy and potential
(c) Low viscosity of oil energy of the molecules
(d) Gravitational force (d) Is wasted
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q75. A solid needle placed horizontally on the surface of Q81. A capillary tube is kept vertical in a beaker
the water floats due to containing liquid. The height to which the liquid rises by
(a) Surface tension capillary action is increased if
(b) Capillary action (a) The radius of the capillary is large
(c) Cohesion (b) The radius of the capillary is small
(d) Adhesion (c) The density of the liquid is large
Ans: (a) (d) The surface tension of the liquid is small
Ans: (b)
Q76. Dimension of modulus of elasticity is
(a) ML–2T–2 Q82. A copper plate has a circular hole cut in it. If the
(b) M–1L–1T–2 plate is heated to a higher temperature, the diameter of
(c) ML–1T–2 the hole
(a) Becomes smaller
(d) ML–1T–1
(b) Increases
Ans: (c)
(c) Remains constant
Q77. M L2 T–2 is the dimensional formula for (d) Increases but the total area of the plate remains
(a) Moment of inertia constant
(b) Pressure Ans: (b)
(c) Elasticity Q83. If S is stress, Y is Young’s modulus of material of a
(d) Couple acting on a body wire, the energy stored in the wire per unit volume is
Ans: (d) (a) 2Y/S
Q78. On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to (b) S/2Y
form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury remains (c) 2S2Y
(d) S2/2Y
almost spherical because
Ans: (d)
(a) Mercury is a metal
(b) The density of mercury is greater than that of water Q84. Let a tin capillary tube be replaced with another
(c) The cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion tube of insufficient length then we find that water
with glass (a) Will overflow
(d) The cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion (b) Will not rise
with glass (c) Depress
Ans: (c) (d) Changes its meniscus
Ans: (b)
Q85. Electro magnetic radiation is emitted by
Q79. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves
(a) X-ray
(a) Viscosity of ink
(b) Electrons
(b) Capillary action phenomenon
(c) Ultrasonic
(c) Diffusion of ink through the blotting
(d) Protons
(d) Siphon action Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
Q86. Energy is not carried by
Q80. When a liquid is at its boiling point, no temperature (a) Transverse progressive waves
change takes place due to heating. The energy supplied (b) Longitudinal progressive waves
due to heating (c) Stationary waves
(a) Is used up to increase the potential energy of the (d) Electromagnetic waves
liquid molecules Ans: (c)

Q87. The fundamental characteristic of all waves are (a) The string has a higher frequency than the tuning fork
(a) Wavelength and must be tightened more
(b) Frequency (b) The string has a lower frequency than the tuning fork
(c) Velocity and must be tightened more to make the frequencies
(d) All the above equal
Ans: (d) (c) The string has a lower frequency and its tension has
to be relaxed to make the frequencies equal
Q88. The frequency of vibration of a stretched string is (d) The string has a higher frequency than the fork and
_______ its length. has to be loosened for equality with fork
(a) Directly proportional to Ans: (b)
(b) Inversely proportional to Q93. An instrument has two strings. Both have the same
(c) Directly proportional to the square of length and are uniform.
(d) Independent of One of the strings is under twice as much tension as the
Ans: (b) other and also twice the mass of the other. Then which of
Q89. A resonant system has a fundamental frequency of the following statements is true?
100 Hz. If the next higher frequency that gives a (a) The more massive string has a resonant frequency √2
resonance are 300 Hz and 500 Hz, the system could be times the other frequency.
(a) A pip open at both ends (b) The frequencies and wavelengths on the two strings
(b) A pipe closed at both ends are equal but the velocity of the wave is less on the more
(c) A string vibrating between two fixed points massive string than on the other.
(d) A pipe open at one end and closed at the other (c) Both strings vibrate at the same frequency but the
Ans: (d) more massive string has a longer wavelength.
(d) Both strings vibrate with the same frequency and
Q90. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
have the same wave-length and the same wave velocity.
(a) The nuclear becomes weak if the nucleus contains too
Ans: (d)
many protons compared to the number of neutrons
(b) The nuclear force becomes weak if the nucleus Q94. If the length of a pendulum is doubled, its
contains too many neutrons compared to the number of frequency of oscillation is changed by a factor of
protons (a) 2
(c) Nuclei with atomic number greater than 82 show a (b) √2
tendency to disintegrate (c) 1/2
(d) The nuclear force becomes very strong if the nucleus (d) 1/4
contains a large number of nucleons. Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
Q95. The diagram below shows the propagations of a
Q91. A travelling wave passes a point of observation wave. Which points are in phase?
where the time interval between successive crests is 0.2 (a) PQ
s. (b) QR
Which of the following is then true? (c) QS
(a) The wavelength is 5 m (d) TQ
(b) The wavelength is 0.2 m Ans: (c)
(c) The velocity of propagation is 5 m/s
Q96. The half - life of a radioactive substance depends
(d) The frequency of 5 Hz.
upon
Ans: (d)
(a) Its temperature
Q92. A veena player compares with a tuning fork the (b) The external pressure
fundamental frequency generated by one of the strings (c) The mass of the substance
of the veena and hears 4 beats per second. He then (d) The strength of the nuclear force between the
tightens the string a bit and hears only 3 beats per nucleons its atoms
second. Then Ans: (d)

Q97. While passing over a suspension bridge, soldiers Q103. The X –ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will
are not allowed to march in steps. This is be
(a) To prevent any formation of sharp echo (a) Monochromatic
(b) Because there cannot be orderly marching (b) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain
(c) To prevent any occurrence of resonance with the minimum wavelength
bridge (c) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain
(d) To prevent the bridge from executing forced maximum wavelength
vibrations (d) Having all wavelengths between a minimum and a
Ans: (c) maximum wavelength
Ans: (b)
Q98. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that
is independent of the other is its Q104. Which of the following waves are diffracted by an
(a) Amplitude obstacle of size 1 cm?
(b) Velocity (a) Light waves
(b) Sound waves
(c) Wavelength
(c) Ultrasonic waves
(d) Frequency
(d) X-rays
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q99. The nature of light waves is similar to
Q105. A substance emits energy which is detected as a
(a) Cosmic rays
line emission in the visible region using a spectroscope.
(b) Cathode rays
The origin of this energy is
(c) Alpha rays
(a) Vibrational energy of the molecules
(d) Gamma rays
(b) Rotational energy of the molecules
Ans: (d)
(c) Energy of orbital electrons
Q100. When two coherent waves interfere, there is (d) Energy of protons in the nucleus.
(a) Loss in energy Ans: (c)
(b) Gain in energy Q106. Why are we able to hear shortwave broadcasts
(c) Redistribution of energy, which changes with time better than long wave broadcasts?
(d) Redistribution of energy, which does not change with (a) Short wave broadcasts are made by nearby radio
time stations
Ans: (d) (b) Short waves are unaffected by atmospheric
Q101. A man standing at the finish line is recording the disturbances
(c) Short waves are more energetic than long waves
time of a race competition by means of a stop watch. He
(d) By convention, short waves are meant for long
must start the watch when
distances whereas long waves are reserved for short
(a) He hears the sound of the starting gun
distances
(b) He sees flash of light coming from the starting gun
Ans: (c)
(c) He sees first man leaving the starting line
(d) He either sees the flash or hears the sound Direction: In the following question, a statement of
Ans: (b) Assertion (A) is given followed by corresponding
Reason (R), just below it. Read the statements carefully
Q102. De Broglie equation is
and mark the correct answer:
(a) h/mv = 1
(b) E1 – E2 = hv explanation of A.
(c) C = 1v (b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(d) n1 = 2d sin q explanation of A.
Ans: (a) (c) If A is true but R is false

Q107. Assertion (A) Sound waves are not Q113. Blue of the sky is due to the
electromagnetic waves. (a) Refraction of white light by the atmosphere
Reason (R) Sound waves cannot propagate in vacuum. (b) Reflection of white light by the earth
Ans: (a) (c) Scattering of white light by molecules of air
(d) Interference of white light
Q108. The element used in an electric filament is
Ans: (c)
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium Q114. Mirage is due to
(c) Iron (a) Unequal heating of different parts of the atmosphere
(d) Tungsten (b) Magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere
Ans: (d) (c) Depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere
(d) Equal heating of different parts of the atmosphere
Q109. The reddish hue of the Sun at sunset is due to the Ans: (a)
fact that
(a) Sunlight is polarized horizontally when scattered by Q115. Rainbow is due to
molecules of the atmosphere (a) Adsorption of sunlight in minute water droplets
(b) Diffusion of sunlight through water droplets
(b) Light of short wavelength is scattered more
(c) Ionisation of water droplets
effectively by the atmosphere than light of long
(d) Refraction and reflection of sunlight by water
wavelength
droplets
(c) Light of short wavelength is scattered less effectively
Ans: (d)
than light of long wavelength
(d) Sunlight is polarized vertically when scattered by Q116. The colour of the ocean appears blue because the
molecules of the atmosphere sunlight falling on it is
Ans: (b) (a) Reflected
(b) Refracted
Q110. The scientific principle involved in a laser is
(c) Absorbed
(a) Newton’s laws of motion
(d) Scattered
(b) Faraday’s laws of induction Ans: (d)
(c) Motion of a charges particle in an electromagnetic
field Q117. The crystal of diamond shines due to
(d) Amplification by population inversion (a) High density
Ans: (d) (b) Total internal reflection
(c) Crystal lattice
Q111. The magnitude of saturation photo electric current (d) None of these
depends upon Ans: (b)
(a) Frequency
Q118. The refractive index of the material of a glass
(b) Intensity
prism depends upon
(c) Work function
(a) The angle of the prism
(d) Stopping potential
(b) The intensity of the incident light ray
Ans: (b)
(c) The colour of the incident light ray
Q112. A concave mirror produces a real, inverted image (d) Size of the prism
of the same size of the object. Then, the object is at a Ans: (c)
distance
Q119. To increase the magnifying power of telescope, we
(a) Less than f from the mirror should increase
(b) Equal to f from the mirror (a) The focal length of the objective
(c) Equal to 2f from the mirror (b) The focal length of the eyepiece
(d) Larger than 2F from the mirror where f is the focal (c) Aperture of the objective
length of the mirror (d) Aperture of the eyepiece
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)

Q120. What causes changes in the colours of the soap or Q126. If a real object is placed just inside the focal point
oil films for the given beam of light? of a diverging lens, the image is
(a) Angle of incidence (a) Virtual, erect and diminished
(b) Angle of reflection (b) Real, inverted and enlarged
(c) Thickness of film (c) Real, inverted and diminished
(d) None of these (d) Virtual, erect and enlarged
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q121. A man wearing spectacles, when working with a Q127. Large astronomical telescopes always use as
microscope objective
(a) Cannot see anything through the microscope (a) Lens
(b) Should deep on wearing spectacles (b) Mirror
(c) Should take off his spectacles (c) Combination of lenses
(d) May work with or without spectacles (d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q122. A rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on
Q128. The angle of minimum deviation of an
drops of rain. Which of the following physical
equiangular prism, having a refractive index of 1.732 is
phenomena is responsible for this?
(a) 60°
1. Diffusion
(b) 30°
2. Refraction
(c) 45°
3. Internal reflection
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 0°
(b) 1 and 2 Ans: (a)
(c) 2 and 3 Q129. The critical angle for a transport solid is 30°. Then
(d) 1 and 3 its refractive index is
Ans: (c) (a) 2.5
Q123. An object is placed at a distance equal to the focal (b) 1.8
length of convex mirror. If the focal length of the mirror (c) 1.5
be f, then the distance of the image from the pole of the (d) 2
mirror is Ans: (d)
(a) Less than f Q130. The critical angle of a glass slab increases with
(b) Equal of f
(a) Increase in the refractive index of glass
(c) More than f
(b) Decrease in the refractive index of glass
(d) Infinity
(c) Increase in temperature
Ans: (a)
(d) None of these
Q124. An observer moves towards a stationary plane Ans: (d)
mirror at a speed of 1 m/s. His image will move towards
Q131. The mirage is seen in a hot desert because of
him at a speed of
(a) 1 m/s (a) The density of the layer of air increases with altitude
(b) 4 m/s (b) The density of the layer of air decreases with altitude
(c) 2 m/s (c) The reflection of light from the layers of sand
(d) ½ m/s (d) The total internal reflection from sand
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q125. Critical reflection will take place if light travels Q132. The phenomenon of total internal reflection may
from occur when light is passing from
(a) Air to water (a) Air to glass
(b) Glass to air (b) Air to water
(c) Water to glass (c) Air to oil
(d) Air to glass (d) Glass to air
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)

Q133. The power of a convex lens is +2.5. Q139. A supersonic plane flies at the speed
Then its focal length is (a) Less than the speed of the sound
(a) 20 cm (b) Of sound
(b) 50 cm (c) Greater than the speed of the sound
(c) 30 cm (d) Of light
(d) 40 cm Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
Q140. Mach number is used in connection with the speed
Q134. The speed of light in water is of that in air. What is of
the refractive index of water? (a) Sound
(a) 3/4 (b) Aircraft
(b) 4/3 (c) Spacecraft
(c) 1/4 (d) Ships
(d) 0 Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q141. Production of beats is a result of the phenomenon
Q135. The wavelength used in radar is of
(a) 10 m (a) Resonance
(b) Less than 5 cm (b) Interference
(c) 100 m (c) Reflection
(d) 1,000 km (d) Superposition
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q136. Ability of the eye to see objects at all distances is Q142. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz are called
called (a) Audio sounds
(a) Binocular vision (b) Infrasonics
(b) Myopia (c) Ultrasonics
(c) Hypermetropia (d) Supersonics
(d) Accommodation Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q143. Sound travels fastest in
Q137. When a person walking in bright sunlight enters a (a) Air
dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while (b) Water
because (c) Vacuum
(a) The eye muscles cannot immediately change the focal (d) Steel
length of the eye lens Ans: (d)
(b) The retina retains the bright images for some time and Q144. Sound waves in air are
becomes momentarily insensitive (a) Transverse
(c) The iris is unable to contract the pupil immediately (b) Longitudinal
(d) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately (c) Electromagnetic
Ans: (d) (d) Polarised
Q138. A bomb explodes on the Moon. How long will it Ans: (b)
take for the sound to reach the Earth? Q145. The pitch of sound is measured by its
(a) 10 s (a) Intensity
(b) 1,000 s (b) Waveform
(c) 1 day (c) Frequency
(d) None of these (d) Loudness
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q146. The quality of sound depends upon its Q152. If the distance between the earth and the sun were
(a) Waveform twice what it is now, the gravitational force exerted on
(b) Frequency the earth by the sun would be
(c) Loudness (a) twice as large as it is now
(d) Pitch (b) four times as large as it is now
Ans: (a) (c) half of what it is now
Q147. The velocity of sound is ….. the density of the (d) one-fourth of what it is now
medium. Ans: (d)
(a) Directly proportional to Q153. The mass of a body is different from its weight
(b) Inversely proportional to because
(c) Directly proportional to the square root of 1. mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is constant
(d) Inversely proportional to the square root of 2. mass varies very little at different places whereas
Ans: (d) weight varies a lot
Q148. The velocity of sound is maximum in 3. mass is constant but weight decreases as the body
(a) A gas moves from the poles to the equator
(b) A liquid 4. mass is a measure of the quantity of matter whereas
(c) A solid weight is a force Which of the above statements is/are
(d) None of the above correct?
Ans: (c) (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
Q149. When mechanical waves have a frequency below (c) 3 only
the audible range, these are called (d) 3 and 4
(a) Sonics Ans: (d)
(b) Infrasonics
(c) Ultrasonics Q154. The weight of a body is
(d) Supersonics 1. same everywhere on the surface of the earth
Ans: (b) 2. maximum at the poles
3. maximum at the equator
Q150. A man is sitting by the side of a large lake. He 4. less on the hills than in the plains Which of the above
hears the utterances of bathers with their mouth close to statements is/are correct?
water surface more clearly than if they were at same (a) 1 only
distance away on land. This effect is due to sound waves (b) 2 and 4
undergoing (c) 3 and 4
(a) Reflection
(d) None
(b) Refraction Ans: (b)
(c) Dispersion
(d) Total internal reflection Q155. A body weighs slightly more at the poles than at
Ans: (c) the equator because
(a) the earth is flat at the poles.
Q151. The gravitational force with which the sun attracts
(b) the earth has the maximum speed of rotation at the
the earth
equator
1. is less than the force with which the earth attracts the
(c) the attractive force at the poles increases due to the ice
sun
cap
2. is the same as the force with which earth attracts the
(d) none of these is a complete explanation
sun
Ans: (d)
3. is more than the force with which the earth attracts the
sun Q156. Let WP and WE be the weights of a body at the
4. varies with the distance between them which of the north pole and at the equator, respectively. If the earth
above statements is/are correct? were not rotating then
(a) 1 only (a) WP would be more
(b) 2 and 4 (b) WP would remain unchanged
(c) 1 and 4 (c) WE would remain unchanged
(d) 3 and 4 (d) WE would be less
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q157. A person weighs more in a lift, which is Q162. A sheet of paper can be pulled out quickly from
(a) moving up with a constant velocity under a glass of water without spilling the water. This
(b) moving down with a constant velocity phenomenon illustrates
(c) accelerating upward (a) lack of friction between paper and glass
(b) newton’s third law of motion
(d) accelerating downward
(c) inertia
Ans: (c)
(d) acceleration
Q158. If a body is taken from the earth to the moon, Ans: (c)
1. its mass will be different but weight will remain the Q163. When the velocity of a body is doubled, its
same 1. acceleration is doubled
2. both mass and weight will be different 2. momentum is doubled
3. its mass will remain the same but weight will be 3. kinetic energy becomes four times
different 4. potential energy is doubled Which of the above is/are
4. its density will remain unchanged Which of the above correct?
(a) 2 only
statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 Ans: (b)
(d) 2 and 4
Q164. If two bodies, one heavy and one light, are acted
Ans: (c)
upon by the same force for the same time, then both
Q159. A ball tied with a string to a rotating shaft revolves bodies acquire the same
at uniform speed. As the shaft is suddenly brought to (a) velocity
(b) momentum
rest, the string starts getting round the shaft with the
(c) acceleration
angular velocity of the ball
(d) speed
(a) increasing Ans: (b)
(b) decreasing
Q165. The work done in holding a weight of 20 kg at a
(c) remaining constant
height of 1 m above the ground is
(d) becoming zero
(a) Zero
Ans: (a) (b) 20 J
Q160. One finds it more difficult to walk on ice than on (c) 200 J
a concrete road because (d) 2000 J
Ans: (a)
(a) ice is soft and spongy whereas concrete is hard
(b) the friction between the ice and the feet is less than Q166. When the speed of a body is doubled, its kinetic
that between the concrete and the feet energy becomes
(c) there is more friction on ice than on concrete (a) double
(b) half
(d) it is not true
(c) quadruple
Ans: (b)
(d) one-fourth
Q161. It is easier to roll a barrel than to pull it because Ans: (c)
(a) the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it Q167. A long thread suspended from a fixed point has a
is pulled small mass swinging to and fro at its lower end. Then,
(b) rolling friction is much less than sliding friction 1. the potential energy of the mass is minimum in the
(c) the surface area of the barrel in contact with the road middle of the swing
is more in the case of pulling 2. the kinetic energy is maximum in the middle of the
swing
(d) of a reason other than those mentioned
3. the potential energy is always equal to the kinetic
Ans: (b)
energy
4. the sum of the potential energy and the kinetic energy Q174. Atmospheric pressure is measured with a
is maximum in the middle of the swing Which of the (a) hydrometer
above statements is/are correct? (b) barometer
(a) 1 only (c) hygrometer
(b) 1 and 2 (d) altimeter
(c) 2 and 4 Ans: (b)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) Q175. The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us.
But we do not feel it because
Q168. Conservation of energy means that (a) we are used to it
(a) energy can be created as well as destroyed (b) our bones are very strong and can withstand this
(b) energy can be created but not destroyed pressure
(c) energy cannot be created but can be destroyed (c) the surface area of our head is very small
(d) energy can neither be created nor destroyed (d) our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that of
Ans: (d) the atmosphere
Q169. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to Ans: (d)
(a) avoid slipping Q176. In a barometer, mercury is preferred over water
(b) increase speed
because
(c) reduce fatigue
(a) mercury is a good conductor of heat
(d) increase stability
(b) mercury is shining and therefore its level can be read
Ans: (d)
easily
Q170. The density of sea water increase as (c) mercury is available in pure form
(a) depth and salinity decrease (d) mercury has high density and low vapour pressure
(b) depth decreases and salinity increases Ans: (d)
(c) depth increases and salinity decreases
Q177. Four wires of the same material and dimensions
(d) depth and salinity increase
Ans: (d) as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude
separately.
Q171. When a ship enters a sea from a river Which of them will be elongated maximum?
(a) it rises a little (a) wire of 3m length and 1.5 mm diameter
(b) it sinks a little (b) wire of 1m length and 2mm diameter
(c) it remains at the same level (c) wire of 2m length and 2mm diameter
(d) it rises or sinks depending on the material it is made (d) wire of 1m length and 1mm diameter
of Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q178. An object weighs maximum in
Q172. A steel ball floats on mercury because
(a) air
(a) mercury does not allow any metallic ball to sink in it
(b) water
(b) mercury is also a metal in the liquid form
(c) hydrogen
(c) the density of mercury is higher than that of steel
(d) vacuum
(d) a steel ball can be made to float on any liquid by
Ans: (d)
suitable adjustment
Ans: (c) Q179. Four solid cubes of different metals, each one
having a mass of one kg are weighed in water select the
Q173. Inside an aeroplane flying at a high altitude,
correct statement:
(a) the pressure is the same as that outside
(a) all cubes weigh equal
(b) normal atmospheric pressure is maintained by the
(b) cube with minimum density weighs minimum
use of air pumps
(c) the pressure inside is less than the pressure outside (c) cube with minimum density weighs maximum
(d) normal humidity and partial vacuum are maintained (d) the mass of all cubes will be the same
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q180. Which one of the following would a hydrogen Q185. If water in a lake were to behave like other liquids,
balloon find easiest to lift? then in extremely cold weather it would freeze
(a) 1 kg of water (a) from top to bottom
(b) 1 kg of copper (b) from bottom to top
(c) 1 kg of loosely packed feathers (c) simultaneously throughout the depth
(d) 500g of copper (d) first on the surface, bottom and sides and then in the
Ans: (c) interior
Ans: (b)
Q181. The science dealing with the study of phenomena
at very low temperatures is known as Q186. The temperature of the top of a frozen lake is –
15°C.
(a) refrigenics
What is the temperature of the water in the lake in
(b) cytogenics
contact with the ice layer?
(c) frozenics
(a) 0°C
(d) cryogenics
(b) 4°C
Ans: (d)
(c) –15°C
Q182. In cold countries alcohol is preferred to mercury (d) –7.5°C
as a thermometric liquid because Ans: (a)
(a) alcohol is a better conductor of heat Q187. Fish can survive inside a frozen lake because
(b) alcohol can be coloured and its level seen easily (a) fish are warm blooded animals
(c) alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury (b) fish hibernate in ice
(d) alcohol is cheaper than mercury (c) water near the bottom does not freeze
Ans: (c) (d) ice is a good conductor of heat
Ans: (c)
Q183. On heating a circular metallic disc with a circular
hole at the centre, the diameter of the hole will Q188. What happens when water is cooled from 8°C to
(a) decrease 0°C?
(b) remain the same 1. Its volume decreases uniformly, becoming minimum
(c) increase at 0°C.
(d) first increase, then decrease 2. Its density increases uniformly, attaining maximum
Ans: (c) value at 0°C.
3. Its volume decreases up to 4°C and then increases
Q184. When a cube of ice floating on water in a beaker 4. Its density increases up to 4°C and then decreases.
melts, the level of water in the beaker Which of the above answers is/are correct?
(a) rises (a) Only 1
(b) falls (b) Only 2
(c) remains the same (c) 3 and 4
(d) first rises and then falls (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q189. The best conductor of heat among liquid is
(a) water
(b) mercury
(c) ether
(d) alcohol
Ans: (b)
Q190. An iron hammer, lying in the sun, appears much
hotter than its wooden handle because
(a) iron is at a higher temperature
(b) iron is darker than wood
(c) iron absorbs more heat
(d) iron is a good conductor of heat
Ans: (d)

Q191. Consider the following statements: Q197. Light coloured clothes are preferred in summer
1. Mica is good conductor of heat. because
2. Mica is a bad conductor of heat. (a) light colours are good radiators of heat
3. Mica is a good conductor of electricity. (b) light colours are poor absorbers of heat
4. Mica is a bad conductor of electricity. (c) they soak sweat faster
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) they allow body heat to escape faster
(a) 1 only Ans: (b)
(b) 1 and 4
Q198. By which of the following methods could a cup of
(c) 1 and 3
hot coffee lose heat if placed on a metal table in a room?
(d) 2 and 4
(a) Conduction and radiation
Ans: (b)
(b) Conduction and convection
Q192. A pyrex tumbler does not crack when hot water is (c) Convection and radiation
poured into it because pyrex (d) Conduction, convection, radiation and evaporation
(a) is a strong material Ans: (d)
(b) does not expand much on heating
(c) is a good conductor of heat Q199. In a cup, tea cools from 90°C to 80°C in exactly one
(d) expands equally from inside and outside minute. It will cool from 70°C to 60°C in
Ans: (b) (a) less than one minute
(b) exactly one minute
Q193. Woollens keep us warm in winter because they (c) nearly one minute
(a) produce more warmth (d) more than one minute
(b) are good absorbers of heat Ans: (d)
(c) do not allow our body heat to escape
(d) do not allow cool air to enter Q200. Drinks remain hot or cold for a long time in a
Ans: (c) thermos flask because of the
(a) presence of air, which is a bad conductor of heat, in
Q194. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top
between the double walls
(a) to keep it away from the hot compressor which is near
(b) silver coating on the inside of the double walls
the bottom
(c) vacuum between the double walls
(b) because of convenience
(d) combined effects of (b) and (c)
(c) so that it can cool the whole interior by setting up
Ans: (d)
convection currents
(d) without any specific purpose Q201. For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends
Ans: (c) on
1. the temperature of the liquid
Q195. By what process is heat transmitted from the
2. the temperature of air
filament of an evacuated electric bulb to the glass?
3. the surface area of the liquid Which of the above
(a) Conduction
factors is/are correct?
(b) Convection
(a) 1 only
(c) Radiation
(b) 1 and 2
(d) Heat cannot be transmitted through vacuum
(c) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q196. Hot coffee is poured simultaneously in four Ans: (d)
metallic tumblers painted outside with different types of
paints. After some time, the coffee will be found coldest Q202. A little ether on the palm gives a cooling sensation
in the tumbler painted because ether
(a) rough white (a) is a cold liquid
(b) shining white (b) evaporates
(c) rough black (c) enters the pores of the skin
(d) shining black (d) condenses on the palm
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

Q203. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. In a direct-to-home (DTH) system, the viewer dish (b) 3 only
antenna picks up signals from the satellite directly. (c) 1 and 3
2. Cable operators receive signal from the satellite on (d) 1, 2 and 3
large community dish antennas and then transmit to the Ans: (a)
viewers’ sets. Q209. The quantity of water vapour that the atmosphere
Which of the above statements is/are correct? can hold
(a) Only 1 (a) is independent of temperature
(b) Only 2 (b) increases with increase of temperature
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) decreases with increase of temperature
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) fluctuates with increase of temperature
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q204. During summer, we feel comfortable under a fan Q210. The hygrometer is an instrument to measure
because it (a) the relative density of liquids
(a) throws cool air on us (b) the purity of milk
(b) sets the air in motion, thereby increasing the (c) relative humidity
evaporation of sweat (d) atmospheric pressure
(c) produces convection currents Ans: (c)
(d) produces air which carries heat away from the body Q211. Who initially gave the idea of laser (without using
Ans: (b) the acronym)?
Q205. Perspiration is maximum when (a) Gordon Gould
1. temperature is high (b) Theodore Maiman
2. humidity is high (c) Albert Einstein
3. humidity is low Which of the above is/are correct? (d) Charles Townes
(a) 1 only Ans: (c)
(b) 1 and 2 Q212. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 1. A flute of smaller length produces waves of lower
(d) 2 only frequency.
Ans: (b) 2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal
Q206. Scalding with steam is more severe than scalding elastic waves only.
by boiling water because Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) steam can penetrate the skin
(b) 2 only
(b) steam is at a higher temperature
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) steam contains more energy than boiling water
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) steam is at a higher pressure
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q213. Light waves are different from sound waves in
Q207. One feels cold after a dip in sea water due to
that
(a) convection currents
1. Light waves are electromagnetic but sound waves are
(b) the deposition of salt on the body not
(c) the evaporation of water on the body 2. Light waves can travel through water but sound
(d) the difference in temperatures between land and sea waves cannot
Ans: (c) 3. Light travels with the same speed in all media
Q208. The surface of water in a pond remains cool even 4. Light waves produce interference but sound waves do
on a hot day because not
1. water evaporates at the surface and evaporation 5. Light can travel through vacuum but sound cannot
causes cooling Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. the heat absorbed at the surface is transmitted (a) 1 and 5
downwards (b) 2 and 3
3. Water in contact with the bottom of the pond becomes (c) 3 and 4
cool and rises to the surface due to convection Which of (d) 1 and 4
the above statements is/are correct? Ans: (a)

Q214. A small hole in the window of a closed room forms Q221. What type of mirror can be used to obtain the real
an inverted image of outside building on the opposite image of an object?
wall of the room. This happens because (a) Plane mirror
(a) the rays of light suffer lateral inversion on entering (b) Concave mirror
the hole (c) Convex mirror
(b) of the rectilinear propagation of light (d) No mirror can produce a real image
(c) the hole acts as a convex lens Ans: (b)
(d) the hole acts as a prism
Ans: (b) Q222. Which of the following can be used as a burning
glass?
Q215. A lunar eclipse occurs when (a) Plane mirror
(a) the sun, the moon and the earth are not in the same (b) Convex mirror
line (c) Concave lens
(b) the moon comes between the sun and the earth (d) Concave mirror
(c) the earth comes between the sun and the moon Ans: (d)
(d) the sun comes between the earth and the moon
Ans: (c) Q223. A dentist’s mirror is a
(a) cylindrical mirror
Q216. A solar eclipse occurs when (b) plane mirror
(a) the moon comes between the sun and the earth (c) none of these
(b) the earth comes between the sun and the moon
(d) concave mirror
(c) the sun comes between the earth and the moon
Ans: (d)
(d) the sun, the moon and the earth are not in the same
line Q224. For the rear view, motorists use
Ans: (a) (a) plane mirror
(b) concave mirror
Q217. The image of an object formed in a plane mirror
(c) convex mirror
(a) is real
(d) cylindrical mirror
(b) is virtual
Ans: (c)
(c) can be obtained on screen
(d) is slightly shorter than the object Q225. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars
Ans: (b) is the
Q218. The minimum length of a plane mirror in which a (a) plane mirror
person can see himself full length should be (b) spherical convex mirror
(a) equal to the person’s height (c) spherical concave mirror
(b) slightly more than his height (d) parabolic concave mirror
(c) nearly half his height Ans: (d)
(d) nearly one-fourth his height Q226. Consider the following statements:
Ans: (c) 1. A pool of water looks shallower than it actually is.
Q219. If you walk towards a plane mirror at a speed of 2. Light bends towards the normal while travelling from
10 cm/s, at what speed does your image approach you? water to air.
(a) 5 cm/s Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 10 cm/s (a) Both
(c) 20 cm/s (b) None
(d) Information inadequate (c) 1 only
Ans: (c) (d) 2 only
Ans: (c)
Q220. If you stand in a room, where two adjacent walls
are covered with plane mirrors, the total number of your Q227. When a pencil is partly immersed in water in a
images formed will be slanting position, the immersed portion appears
(a) 2 (a) bent towards the bottom
(b) 3 (b) bent towards the water surface
(c) 4 (c) bent in a zigzag manner
(d) Infinite (d) curved downward
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

Q228. The sun remains visible for some time after it Q234. After a shower of rain, a rainbow is seen
actually sets below the horizon. This happens due to (a) towards the sun
1. atmospheric refraction (b) opposite the sun
2. scattering of light (c) anywhere, irrespective of the position of the sun
3. dispersion Which of the above statements is/are (d) even in the absence of the sun
correct? Ans: (b)
(a) 1 only Q235. When white light passes through a glass prism, it
(b) 1 and 2 gets dispersed into colours because
(c) 1 and 3 (a) glass imparts colours to the light
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) different colours have different speeds in glass
Ans: (a) (c) interference of light occurs
(d) diffraction of light occurs
Q229. If there were no atmosphere, the length of the day Ans: (b)
would
Q236. Lights of different colours are arranged below in
(a) decrease
order of increasing wavelengths:
(b) remain unaffected
1. Violet, indigo, blue
(c) increase
2. Green, orange, red
(d) be almost half
3. Red, green, indigo
Ans: (a) 4. Blue, green, yellow Which of the above are in proper
Q230. The sun and moon appear elliptical near the sequence?
horizon due to (a) 1 only
(a) optical illusion (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(b) interference
(d) 1 and 4
(c) refraction
Ans: (d)
(d) actual change in shapes
Ans: (c) Q237. What are primary colours?
(a) Colours of the rainbow
Q231. The twinkling of stars can be partly attributed to (b) Colours in the spectrum of white light
(a) intermittent shining (c) Colours which cannot be produced by mixing other
(b) convection currents in the atmosphere colours
(c) atmospheric refraction (d) Colours found in nature
(d) the unstable motion of the earth Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q238. In the following list of colours
Q232. Planets do not twinkle because they 1. Blue
(a) emit light continuously 2. Green
(b) are luminous sources of light 3. Red
(c) are nearer to us and therefore their light does not pass 4. Yellow Which are the three primary colours?
through the atmosphere (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) are nearer to us and therefore minor variations in
(c) 2, 3 and 4
their intensity are not noticeable
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
Q233. A rainbow is formed by the ________ of light by Q239. Which part of the camera is analogous to the retina
water droplets. in the human eye?
(a) dispersion (a) Lens
(b) scattering (b) Film
(c) total internal reflection (c) Aperture
(d) dispersion and total interval reflection (d) Shutter
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)

Q240. When a person enters a dark room from bright Q247. Which of the following would be most suitable for
light, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because making an electromagnet?
the (a) Copper
(a) eye is unable to adjust itself immediately (b) Tungsten
(b) retina becomes insensitive momentarily (c) Soft iron
(c) iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately (d) Steel
(d) distance between the lens and retina takes time to Ans: (c)
adjust
Ans: (c) Q248. Which of the following does not rely on the
magnetic effect of current for its working?
Q241. A thermostat is a device for (a) Fan
(a) switching off an electrical appliance (b) Telephone receiver
(b) measuring temperature (c) Carbon microphone
(c) regulating temperature (d) Dynamo
(d) producing heat Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q249. Which of the following uses the attractive force on
Q242. If a bar magnet, tied in the middle with a thread, soft iron?
were suspended at the north pole of the earth, it would
(a) Carbon microphone
take
(b) Telephone receiver
(a) a horizontal position
(c) Simple motor
(b) a nearly vertical position with its north pole pointing
(d) Dynamo
downward
Ans: (b)
(c) a vertical position with its south pole pointing
downward Q250. Nichrome wire is used as a heating element I many
(d) a slanting position appliances because
Ans: (b) (a) it can be drawn out into wires easily
Q243. The crackling sound, heard when dry hair is (b) it has high resistivity
combed with a hard rubber comb, is due to (c) it resists oxidation in air when red hot
(a) the hair banging against the charged comb (d) both (b) and (c) are correct
(b) small electric sparks Ans: (d)
(c) the rubbing of the comb with the hair Q251. Which of the following devices converts electrical
(d) breaking of the comb energy into mechanical energy?
Ans: (b) (a) Dynamo
Q244. A capacitor (condenser) is used in an electrical (b) Transformer
circuit to (c) Electric motor
(a) step down voltage (d) Inductor
(b) step up voltage Ans: (c)
(c) store electric charge Q252. The starting current of an electric motor is
(d) produce electric charge ________ the current flowing after the motor reaches its
Ans: (c)
normal running speed.
Q245. Which of the following is a semiconductor? (a) nearly equal to
(a) Phosphorus (b) exactly equal to
(b) Wood (c) less than
(c) Silicon (d) much greater than
(d) Glass Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q253. Energy conversions taking place in a microphone
Q246. ‘IC chips’ for computers are usually made of are
(a) lead (a) sound to mechanical to electrical
(b) silicon (b) electrical to mechanical to sound
(c) chromium (c) sound to mechanical
(d) gold (d) mechanical to sound
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)

Q254. The device used for converting mechanical energy Q261. The material used for a fuse wire should have
into electrical energy is called a/an (a) high resistivity
(a) cell (b) high ductility
(b) transformer (c) high melting point
(c) dynamo (d) low melting point
(d) electric motor Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q262. One should not connect a number of electrical
appliances to the same power socket because
Q255. A transformer is a device for
1. this can damage the appliances
(a) stepping up (or down) DC voltage
2. this can damage the domestic wiring due to
(b) generating electricity
overheating
(c) stepping up (or down) AC voltage
3. the appliances will not get full voltage
(d) converting AC into DC Which of the above is/are valid reasons?
Ans: (c) (a) 2 and 3
Q256. In our houses we get 220 V AC. The value 220 (b) 2 only
represents (c) 1 and 2
(a) constant voltage (d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
(b) effective voltage
(c) average voltage Q263. An electrical appliance is earthed to
(d) peak voltage 1. Protect the appliance against any damage
Ans: (b) 2. Prevent electric shocks
3. Avoid short-circuiting Which of the above is/are
Q257. The advantage of AC over DC is that correct?
(a) it contains more electrical energy (a) 1 only
(b) it is free from voltage fluctuations (b) 2 only
(c) it generation costs much less (c) 1 and 2
(d) it can be transmitted over long distances with (d) 2 and 3
minimum power loss Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)
Q264. An electric bulb has a filament made of
Q258. The function of fuse in an electrical circuit is (a) Copper
(a) avoid electric shocks (b) Iron
(b) regulate the flow of current (c) Lead
(c) break the circuit in case of overloading or short (d) Tungsten
circuiting Ans: (d)
(d) switch off current Q265. The filament of an electric lamp becomes white hot
Ans: (c) but the lead-in wires holding the filament are only
slightly heated because they
Q259. In an electrical circuit, a fuse is connected
(a) have smaller current passing through them
(a) in the live wire
(b) have very low resistance
(b) in the neutral wire
(c) have higher melting point
(c) in the earth wire (d) are made of black iron
(d) anywhere—it makes no difference Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q266. Air is completely removed from an electric bulb to
Q260. If a fuse blows frequently, one should prevent
(a) replace it with a thin wire (a) oxidation of tungsten filament
(b) replace it with a thick copper wire (b) bursting of the bulb
(c) replace it with a paper clip (c) loss of light due to absorption
(d) call an electrician (d) none of these
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)

Q267. Consider the following statements: Q273. The period of revolution of a geostationary
1. when an electric bulb is switched on, the resistance of satellite is
its tungsten filament increases. (a) 24 hours
2. the resistance of pure metals increases on heating. (b) 30 days
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) 365 days
(a) Both 1 and 2 (d) changing continuously
(b) only 1 Ans: (a)
(c) only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q274. If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship,
Ans: (a) it will
(a) fall towards the earth
Q268. When an electric bulb breaks, there is a mild bang
(b) move along with the spaceship at the same speed
due to
(c) move at a higher speed
(a) the chemical reaction between the enclosed gases
(d) move at a lower speed
(b) the compressed gases rushing out suddenly
Ans: (b)
(c) the air rushing in to fill the evacuated space
(d) some other unknown reason Q275. What is the total number of planets orbiting the
Ans: (c) sun?
Q269. A common fluorescent tube contains (a) 7
(a) sodium vapour (b) 8
(b) argon at low pressure (c) 9
(c) mercury vapour at low pressure (d) 10
(d) mercuric oxide and neon Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Q276. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Q270. In which of the following industries is mica used 1. The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit.
as a raw material? 2. The sun always attracts the earth with the same force.
(a) Electrical (a) Both
(b) Iron and steel (b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Toys (c) 1 only
(d) Glass and pottery (d) 2 only
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q271. The planet/planets on which the Sun rises in the Q277. Planets
west is/are 1. are luminous bodies
1. Venus 2. twinkle
2. Uranus 3. are non-luminous bodies
3. Mars 4. do not twinkle Which of the above statements is/are
4. None Which of the above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 4 only
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
Q272. Which planet does not have atmosphere around
it? Q278. Planets are
(a) Mercury (a) luminous bodies that twinkle
(b) Mars (b) non-luminous bodies that twinkle
(c) Uranus (c) luminous bodies that do not twinkle
(d) Neptune (d) non-luminous bodies that do not twinkle
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)

Q279. Which part of the sun is visible during total solar Q284. The star (other than the sun) nearest to the earth is
eclipse? (a) Proxima Centauri
(a) No part (b) Alpha Centauri
(b) Corona (c) Pole star
(c) Chromosphere (d) Vega
(d) Photosphere Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q285. The nearest star (other than the sun), which is
Q280. The unit of astronomical distance is the
visible to the naked eye is
(a) angstrom
(a) Proxima Centauri
(b) kilometre
(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) nautical mile
(c) Pole star
(d) light year
(d) Vega
Ans: (d)
Ans: (b)
Q281. The astronomical unit (AU) is the
(a) mean distance from the centre of the sun to the centre Q286. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun)
of the earth reaches the earth in
(b) mean distance between the surface of the sun to the (a) 4.2 seconds
surface of the earth (b) 42 seconds
(c) maximum distance between the sun and the earth (c) 4.2 years
(d) minimum distance between the sun and the earth (d) 42 years
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q282. The solar system belongs to the galaxy called Q287. The pole star does not seem to move because
(a) Andromeda nebula (a) it is in line with the earth’s axis of rotation
(b) Milky Way (b) it moves around the sun and not the earth
(c) Radiogalaxy (c) its movement can be seen only during a solar eclipse
(d) Magellanic cloud (d) it rotates very rapidly
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q283. Constellations appear to change their positions at
Q288. Which of the following do not belong to the solar
different times of night because
system?
(a) the earth revolves round the sun
(a) Asteroids
(b) the earth rotates about its axis
(b) Comets
(c) the constellations move faster than the earth
(d) the earth and the constellations move in opposite (c) Planets
directions (d) Nebulae
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q289. Which planet has prominent rings around it?

(a) Uranus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Ans: (d)
Q290. Which planet is known as the red planet?

(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Pluto
Ans: (b)

Q291. The planet closest to the sun is Q298. The sun is
(a) Mercury (a) a small star
(b) Venus (b) a medium-sized star
(c) Earth (c) a big star
(d) Mars (d) not a star
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q292. The heaviest among the inner planets is the Q299. Stars appear to move from east to west because the
(a) Earth (a) Whole universe is moving from east to west
(b) Mars (b) Earth is revolving around the sun
(c) Mercury (c) Earth is rotating from east to west
(d) Venus (d) Earth is rotating from west to east
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q300. On a clear night, we can see nearly ________ stars
Q293. The planet farthest from the sun is
with naked eyes.
(a) Neptune
(a) 3,000
(b) Jupiter
(b) 10,000
(c) Saturn
(c) 30,000
(d) Uranus
(d) 100,000
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q294. Which of the following planets do not have Miscellaneous
satellites revolving around them?
1. Mars Q1. Solar eclipse occurs when
2. Venus (a) Earth comes between sun and moon
3. Mercury (b) Moon is at right angle to the earth
4. Neptune Choose the correct code below: (c) Moon comes between sun and earth
(a) 1 and 2 (d) Sun comes between moon and earth
(b) 2 and 3 Ans: (c)
(c) 1 and 3 Q2. When a man circles round the earth in a satellite,
(d) 2 and 4 then
Ans: (b) (a) His mass becomes zero but weight remains constant
(b) Mass remains constant but weight becomes zero
Q295. Which planet has the maximum number of
(c) Both mass and weight remain constant
satellites?
(d) Both mass and weight remain zero
(a) Jupiter
Ans: (b)
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars Q3. The weight of an object at the poles is greater than at
(d) Saturn the equator. This is because
Ans: (a) (a) Of the shape of the earth
(b) The attraction of the moon is maximum at the earth’s
Q296. The tail of a comet always points away from the surface
sun due to (c) The attraction of the sun is maximum at the earth’s
(a) force of repulsion surface
(b) centrifugal force (d) Gravitational pull is more at the poles
(c) solar radiation and solar wind Ans: (d)
(d) an unknown reason
Q4. The water in an open pond remains cool even in hot
Ans: (c)
summer because
Q297. What is the source of electric energy in an artificial (a) Of continuous evaporation of water
satellite? (b) Water radiates heat more rapidly than the
(a) A mini nuclear reactor atmosphere
(b) A dynamo (c) Water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere
(c) A thermopile (d) Water absorbs heat more rapidly than the
(d) Solar cells atmosphere
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q5. You are travelling in a car and a thunder storm Q10. The minor planets revolving between the orbits of
suddenly takes place. What will be your first step? Marsh and Jupiter are called
(a) Stop the car, get out of it and lie flat in the field (a) Asteroids
(b) Stand below a tree (b) Comets
(c) Go to a nearby wooden pole and stick to it (c) Meteors
(d) Lie flat in the car (d) Novas
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q6. In high mountain regions bleeding through nose Q11. Gobar gas contains mainly
occurs because (a) Carbon dioxide
(a) The pressure of the blood capillaries is higher than the (b) Methane
outside pressure (c) Ethylene
(b) The pressure at high altitudes is greater than that in (d) Carbon monoxide
the plains Ans: (b)
(c) The blood pressure increases at high altitudes Q12. If a large number of people are enclosed in a room,
(d) The blood pressure decreases at high altitudes then
Ans: (a) (a) Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases
Q7. When light enters a closed room through a small (b) Oxygen increases and carbon dioxide decrease
hole in the door, the image of an outside building (c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide decrease
appears as inverted on the opposite wall. This is because (d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide increase
Ans: (a)
(a) The hole acts as a convex lens
(b) Light takes curvature at the edges of the hole Q13. The density of sea water is highest as
(c) Of rectilinear propagation of light (a) Depth increases and salinity increases
(d) The hole acts as a concave lens (b) Depth decreases and salinity increases
Ans: (b) (c) Depth increases and salinity decreases
(d) Depth decreases and salinity decreases
Q8. An ordinary clock loses time in summer. This is
Ans: (a)
because
(a) The length of the pendulum increases and time Q14. The temperature for pasteurization of milk is
period increases selected so as to
(b) The length of the pendulum increases and time (a) Kill the micro-organisms
period decreases (b) Kill all bacteria
(c) The length of the pendulum decreases and time (c) Store it for long time without coagulation
period increases (d) Kill the micro organisms and other harmful bacteria
(d) The length of the pendulum decreases and time Ans: (c)
period decreases Q15. What is the most important factor for the growth of
Ans: (a) pests in stored grains?
Q9. A ball bounces higher at high altitudes than in (a) The moisture of grains
plains. (b) The temperature of grains
This is because (c) The moisture and temperature of grains
(a) the pressure on higher altitudes is lower than that in (d) None of the above
plains Ans: (c)
(b) Downward pull due to gravity is less at higher Q16. Age of a tree can be determined
altitudes (a) By counting the number of rings
(c) The rarefied air offers less resistance to the ball (b) By thickness of the bark
(d) You become more energetic at hills, so greater the (c) By bulk of the tree
force applied, higher goes the ball. (d) By number of leaves
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)

Q17. One litre of cold air weighs heavier than the dry air Q24. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night
(1 Litre) because of the because of the
(a) Increased number of collisions between the molecules (a) Release of oxygen in lesser amount
(b) Increased number of molecules at low temperature (b) Release of oxygen in larger amount
(c) Greater energy of molecules at high temperature (c) Release of carbon monoxide
(d) Lower energy of molecules at high temperature (d) Release of carbon dioxide
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q18. Which of the following metals is used in the Q25. Higher plants take up nitrogen as
electromagnets? (a) Nitrites only
(a) Soft iron (b) Nitrates only
(b) Stainless steel (c) Nitrates and ammonia
(c) Cobalt (d) Urea
(d) Copper Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q26. Green plants in the sea are useful for the respiration
Q19. The bats can fly in the dark because of fish because
(a) They have a better vision in the dark (a) They give out oxygen
(b) The light startles them (b) They give out carbon dioxide
(c) They produce ultrasonics (c) The give out oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) None of the above simultaneously
Ans: (c) (d) They take oxygen and give out carbon dioxide
Ans: (a)
Q20. The content of water is greater than fats, in the
plasma, proteins are more than fats and fats less than Q27. Stripes on the back of the animals are the indication
plasma. Which constitutes the major part of the human of
body? (a) Mating habit
(a) Fats (b) Food habit
(b) Water (c) Cave dwelling
(c) Plasma (d) Matching of skin colour with surroundings
(d) Proteins Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q28. Which of the following is a balanced fertilizer for
Q21. Pulse reading is done by doctors to find out plants?
(a) Temperature (a) Urea
(b) Heart beat (b) Ammonia sulphate
(c) Blood pressure (c) Nitrates
(d) Respiration rate (d) Compost
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q22. After how many days rash appears on the body Q29. Which of the following is not immunized by ‘Triple
after the attack of Measles? Antigen’?
(a) One day (a) Typhoid
(b) Four days (b) Whooping cough
(c) Six days (c) Tetanus
(d) One week (d) Diphtheria
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q23. The Vitamin responsible for anti-sterile activity is Q30. Milk fever in cows occurs due to the lack of
(a) Vitamin A (a) Phosphates
(b) Vitamin B (b) Calcium
(c) Vitamin C (c) Iron
(d) Vitamin E (d) Iodine
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)

Q31. After hatching by the hen, the young chicks come Q38. Feeding of milk cattle with cotton seeds
out of eggs within (a) Increases fat content temporarily
(a) One week (b) Decreases fat content temporarily
(b) Two weeks (c) May decrease or increase fat content
(c) Three weeks (d) Causes no change in fat content
(d) Four weeks Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q39. Mouth and foot disease in cattle are caused due to
Q32. Which one of the following is a fast growing tree? (a) Bacteria
(a) Teak (b) Virus
(b) Eucalyptus (c) Fungi
(c) Banyan (d) Penicillium
Ans: (b)
(d) Coconut
Ans: (b) Q40. A body partially floats in water when
(a) The volume of the displaced liquid is equal to the
Q33. Decrease in white blood cells results in
volume of the body
(a) Decrease in Antibodies
(b) The volume of the displaced liquid is greater than the
(b) Increase in Antigens
volume of the body
(c) Increase in Antibodies
(c) The weight of the displaced water is equal to the
(d) No change
weight of the body
Ans: (b)
(d) The weight of the displaced water is greater than the
Q34. In India people suffer from Anemia due to lack of weight of the body
(a) Iron Ans: (a)
(b) Iodine Q41. Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed
(c) Calcium by
(d) Potassium (a) Boiling
Ans: (a) (b) Adding caustic soda
Q35. Reserprine derived from the plant ‘Serpentina’ is (c) Distillation
used to (d) Adding soda
(a) Alleviate pains Ans: (a)
(b) Alleviate high blood pressure Q42. In summer, man with excess perspiration feels
(c) Alleviate low blood pressure weak, because of the
(d) Cure rickets (a) Loss of more water through evaporation
Ans: (c) (b) Loss of salts through evaporation
(c) Loss of carbohydrates through evaporation
Q36. In India it is found recently that incidence of
(d) All factors mentioned above
Malaria is increasing because
Ans: (d)
(a) The mosquitoes have become DDT resistant
(b) Of poverty in villages
(c) Of poor sanitary conditions
(d) On account of increase in population it has become
impossible to maintain cleanliness everywhere
Ans: (a)
Q37. Less dew is formed on cloudy nights because
(a) Clouds absorb the falling dew
(b) Clouds scatter moisture
(c) In cloudy nights the radiation takes place very slowly
(d) In cloudy nights the radiation takes place very
quickly
Ans: (d)

Q43. The two branches of a plant give two different Q49. The growth of seedling plants after transplantation
fruits: will not always be proper because
tomatoes and brinjals. This can be explained (a) New soil may not contain the required minerals
(a) By hybridisation (b) During transplantation root hairs get damaged
(c) Roots cannot penetrate deep into the soil
(b) By grafting one with the other
(d) Of all factors stated above
(c) By nature’s freak
Ans: (d)
(d) By (a) or (c) mentioned above
Ans: (b) Q50. BCG vaccination is to be given to a new born child
(a) Immediately after birth
Q44. The function of the liver is to (b) Within 48 hours
(a) Promote digestion of food (c) Within seven days
(b) Promote respiration (d) Within six months
(c) Store glucose as glycogen Ans: (c)
(d) None of these Q51. Which of the following cows gives maximum milk
Ans: (d) yield?
(a) Jersey
Q45. Which of the following can be said as the “Theory
(b) Holstein
of Darwin”? (c) Red Sindhi
(a) Survival of the fittest and struggle for existence (d) Sahiwal
(b) Weak and strong always maintain a fixed proportion Ans: (b)
(c) different species do not arise by genetic mutaion Q52. Range of Television Broadcasting is confined to a
(d) None of these limited distance because
Ans: (a) (a) Long waves are used
(b) Short waves are absorbed by atmosphere
Q46. The term ‘Test Tube Baby’ implies
(c) Energy of the waves is dissipated
(a) Fertilisation of ovum takes place I the test tube but it (d) Earth is spherical in shape
develops in uterus Ans: (d)
(b) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test tube and
Q53. Unit of distance used in navigation is
develops in the test tube itself
(a) Nautical mile
(c) Fertilisation of the ovum takes place in the uterus but (b) Kilometre
develops in the test tube (c) Light year
(d) Fertilisation takes place in uterus and embryo (d) Yard
develops in uterus Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q54. What type of mirror is used by motorists to see the
Q47. Decomposition of organic matter is due to road behind them?
(a) Virus (a) Convex
(b) Concave
(b) Fungi
(c) Plane
(c) Bacteria
(d) Concave-convex
(d) None of these Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q55. The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is about
Q48. Carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins which are 1. 30 km/sec
responsible for energy, growth and vitality are obtained 2. 6 km/sec
respectively from 3. 11.2 km/sec
(a) Cereals, milk and vegetables 4. 300 km/sec 15. The radiant energy of the sun is due to
(b) Milk, pulses and cereals (a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Milk, pulses and vegetables
(c) Sinking of the sun
(d) Pulses, vegetables and cereals
(d) Violent explosions
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q56. In microphone, transformation of energy takes Q63. The chief constituent of gobar gas is
place from (a) Methane
(a) Sound into electrical energy (b) Carbon dioxide
(b) Electrical into sound energy (c) Acetylene
(c) Sound into mechanical energy (d) Ethylene
(d) Mechanical into sound energy Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q64. The heating element in an electric iron is made of
Q57. Fuel used in a nuclear reactor is
(a) Nichrome
(a) Uranium
(b) Tungsten
(b) Heavy water
(c) Copper
(c) Barium
(d) Cadmium (d) Iron
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q58. Neil Armstrong was the first person to reach on the Q65. Dry ice is
moon. While walking on the moon (a) Solid carbon dioxide
(a) His mass remained the same but weight increased (b) Ice dust
(b) His mass remained the same but weight decreased (c) Liquified nitrogen
(c) His mass as well as weight decreased (d) Liquified hydrogen
(d) His mass increased but weight remained the same Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q66. When iron rusts, the weight
Q59. Distance of stars is measured in (a) Increases
(a) Light years (b) Decreases
(b) Kilometres per second
(c) Remains the same
(c) Kilometres only
(d) First increases then decreases
(d) Nautical miles
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q60. Isotopes of the same element differ in the number Q67. What is mainly obtained from bauxite?
of (a) Copper
(a) Protons (b) Aluminium
(b) Neutrons (c) Iron
(c) Electrons (d) Gold
(d) Positrons Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q68. Which substance is commonly used in
Q61. Stainless steel contains which of the following? refrigerators?
(a) Aluminium and Zinc (a) Freon
(b) Chromium and Carbon (b) Oxygen
(c) Zinc and Mercury (c) Ammonia
(d) Copper and Cadmium
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
Q62. Radar is used for
Q69. Municipal water in India is generally treated with
(a) Detecting objects by using light waves
(a) Chlorine
(b) Reflecting sound waves to detect objects
(c) Determining the presence and location of objects with (b) Potassium permanganate
radio waves (c) Sodium Chloride
(d) Tracking rain-bearing clouds (d) Sodium Carbonate
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)

Q70. Another name of Vitamin C is Q78. To an astronaut in the spacecraft, the sky colour
(a) Folic acid appears to be
(b) Ascorbic acid (a) Blue
(c) Niacin (b) White
(d) Acetic acid (c) Black
Ans: (b) (d) Orange red
Q71. Dialysis is used for a patient suffering from Ans: (c)
(a) Kidney trouble
Q79. 4° F will be equivalent to
(b) Liver trouble
(a) 77° X
(c) Lung trouble
(d) Heart trouble (b) 113.3° X
Ans: (a) (c) 128.6° X
(d) 154.4° X
Q72. Green colour of plants is due to the presence of Ans: (c)
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Sugar Q80. What are the primary colours?
(c) Mitochondria (a) Blue, green, yellow
(d) Xylem (b) Yellow, red, blue
Ans: (a) (c) Red, blue, green
Q73. The deficiency of Vitamin D causes (d) Green, white, black
(a) Rickets Ans: (b)
(b) Night blindness
Q81. If water contracts on freezing, which of the
(c) Pellagra
following would happen?
(d) Scurvy
Ans: (a) (a) Icebergs will completely float on the surface of water
(b) Ice would become more dense
Q74. During processing and cooking which part of food (c) Lakes would freeze from top to bottom
is mostly destroyed? (d) Rocks will crack due to freezing of internal water
(a) Proteins Ans: (b)
(b) Vitamins
(c) Carbohydrates Q82. When the ice floating in a glass of water melts, the
(d) Fats level of water will
Ans: (a) (a) Increase
Q75. Which one of the following is secreted by Pancreas (b) Decrease
and regulates the amount of sugar in the body? (c) Remain constant
(a) Renin (d) First increase and then decrease
(b) Creatin Ans: (c)
(c) Vitamin
Q83. What is the function of a fuse wire?
(d) Insulin
(a) To prevent an unduly high electric current from
Ans: (d)
passing through a circuit
Q76. What happens when alcoholic is taken in excess ? (b) To increase the current supply
(a) It destroys the liver (c) To decrease the current supply
(b) It produces inflammation of the stomach (d) To stabilise the voltage
(c) It causes the heart to become weak
Ans: (a)
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) Q84. Why is it advisable not to draw current for many
Q77. The deficiency of _______________ causes goiter. appliances from a single point?
(a) Sulphur (a) Current will decrease
(b) Iodine (b) Current will increase
(c) Calcium (c) Current and voltage both will increase
(d) Vitamin A (d) Voltage will decrease whereas current will increase
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)

Q85. Why does man weigh more at the poles than at the Q91. Which of the following is commonly present in the
equator? acids?
(a) Because there is no atmosphere at the poles (a) Oxygen
(b) Because gravitational pull is more at the poles (b) Hydrogen
(c) Sulphur
(c) Because gravitational pull is less at the poles
(d) Nitrogen
(d) None of the above Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
Q92. In what sequence are the following obtained from a
Q86. Mark the correct answer natural gas well?
(a) Planets have an apparent motion and twinkle 1. Natural Gas
(b) Planets have no apparent motion but twinkle 2. Water
(c) Planets have an apparent motion but do not twinkle 3. Crude oil Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(d) Planets have no apparent motion and do not twinkle
(b) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (c)
(c) 3, 2, 1
Q87. Why is it easier to cook in a pressure cooker? (d) 2, 1, 3
(a) High pressure creates turbulence Ans: (a)
(b) More steam is formed inside the cooker Q93. Why camphor disappears when kept on a plate?
(c) Boiling point of water is raised (a) It sublimes
(d) Boiling point of water is lowered (b) It reacts with the metal of the container
Ans: (c) (c) It reacts with the gases of the air
(d) None of the above
Q88. What happens when the temperature of water falls Ans: (a)
from 30°C and 0°C? Q94. Gypsum is added to the soil?
(a) The volume of ice formed will be less than volume of (a) To increase the alkalinity
water (b) To decrease the acidity
(b) The volume of ice formed will be more than the (c) To decrease the alkalinity
volume of water (d) As an insecticide
(c) Water will not freeze at 0°C Ans: (b)
(d) None of the above Q95. Identical twins are born when
Ans: (b) (a) Two sperms fertilise one ovum
(b) Two sperms fertilise two ovums simultaneously
Q89. What is done to raise the dough while making (c) Open sperm fertilizes the ovum and zygote divides
bread? into two separate cells developing independently
(a) Alcohol is added (d) One sperm fertilises two ovums
(b) yeast is added Ans: (c)
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed Q96. Conception generally takes place at the time of
(d) Air is passed (a) Menses
Ans: (b) (b) Before menses
(c) Immediately after menses
Q90. Which of the following statements is true?
(d) Two weeks after menses
(a) Both salinity and density of sea increase with depth Ans: (d)
(b) Both salinity and density of sea decrease with depth
Q97. Why mothers feed the child with Vitamin A?
(c) Salinity increase but density of sea deceases with
(a) To prevent rickets
depth (b) To prevent beri-beri
(d) Salinity decreases but density of sea increases with (c) To prevent night blindness
depth (d) To prevent polio
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)

Q98. Growing children require comparatively more (a) Growth of micro-organism is checked
(a) Proteins (b) Nutrients are concentrated
(c) Surface of food stuffs becomes hard
(b) Carbohydrates (d) Chemical reactions stop in the absence of water
(c) Vitamins Ans: (a)
(d) All of these
Ans: (a)
Q99. Heart patients should avoid taking excess of

(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans: (b)
Q100. How dehydration helps in the preservation of

food?

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NCERT Based 1000 MCQ for DSSSB TGT Natural Science

Biology Q7. The basic unit of all living organisms is

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Q16. Fungi are always Q24. Which of the following is an amphibian?

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Q87. Fruiting body of mushrooms is present in Q95. What is tissue culture?

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Q118. O2 released in the process of photosynthesis

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