Sample Question Paper (2023-24)

CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
TIME: 3 Hr. MAX MARKS: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them.
1. There are 5 printed pages and 37 questions in all.
2. The question paper is divided into six sections- Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
3. All questions are compulsory, however internal choices are given in some questions. Attempt any one
of them.
4. Marks are indicated against each question.
5. Section A: Questions from serial number 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
6. Section B: Questions from serial number 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each.
Answer of these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
7. Section C: Questions from serial number 25 to 29 are short answer type questions of 3 marks each.
Answer of these questions should not exceed 60 words each.
8. Section D: Questions from serial number 30 to 33 are long answer type questions of 5 marks each.
Answer of these questions should not exceed 120 words each
9. Section E: Questions from serial number 34 to 36 are case-based questions, carrying of 4 marks each.
10.Section F: Question number 37 is a map-based question of 5 marks.

SECTION–A (MCQs)

Q.1. Since its independence in 1930, how often does Mexico hold elections to elect its President? (1)
A) Every four years B) Every six years C) Every eight years D) Every ten years

Q.2. In what year did Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders draft a constitution for India? (1)
A) 1918 B) 1920 C) 1925 D) 1928

Q.3. As of January 26, 2019, how many seats in the Lok Sabha are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes, respectively? (1)
A) SC: 74, ST: 37 B) SC: 84, ST: 47 C) SC: 65, ST: 52 D) SC: 92, ST: 40

Q.4. Who headed the Second Backward Classes Commission appointed by the Government of India in
1979? (1)
A) V.P. Singh B) B.P. Mandal C) K.R. Narayanan D) Rajiv Gandhi

Q.5. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to as 'the heart and soul' of the Constitution? (1)
A) Right to Freedom of Speech B) Right to Equality
C) Right to Constitutional Remedies D) Right to Property

Q.6. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and chose the correct option: (1)
Assertion: In India, there is unemployment in both rural and urban areas.
Reason: The nature of unemployment differs in rural and urban areas, with rural areas experiencing
seasonal and disguised unemployment, while urban areas mostly have educated unemployment.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

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Q.7. What is the target of the new sustainable development goals proposed by the United Nations (UN)?
A) Ending poverty of all types by 2030 B) Reducing poverty by half by 2025 (1)
C) Eradicating hunger by 2050 D) Achieving gender equality by 2040

Q.8. In the context of economic factors, which capital is considered the best among land, labour, physical
capital, and human capital, and why?
A) Land capital, for its stability and permanence
B) Labour capital, for its adaptability and flexibility
C) Physical capital, for its tangible and long-lasting nature
D) Human capital, for its knowledge, skills, and innovation

Q.9. Which famine is considered the most devastating in India, resulting in the death of thirty lakh people?
A) Famine of 1901 B) Famine of 1939 (1)
C) Famine of Bengal in 1943 D) Famine of 1951

Q.10. In which year did Louis XVI of the Bourbon family ascend the throne of France? (1)
A) 1765 B) 1770 C) 1774 D) 1780

Q.11. Differentiate between Tithe and Taille in historical taxation: (1)

A) Tithe was a tax paid to the state, while Taille was a church tax.
B) Tithe was a state tax, while Taille was a church tax.
C) Tithe was a tax levied by the church, and Taille was a tax paid directly to the state.
D) Tithe and Taille were both church taxes with varying rates.

Q.12. What characterizes the year 1904 for Russian workers? (1)
A) A significant increase in real wages
B) Stable prices of essential goods
C) A rapid rise in prices leading to a 20% decline in real wages
D) Improved working conditions

Q.13. How did the Tsar handle the first and second Dumas in Russia? (1)
A) Dissolved the first Duma within 75 days and the re-elected second Duma within three months
B) Dissolved both the first and second Dumas after completing their full terms
C) Extended the term of the first Duma but dismissed the second Duma within 75 days
D) Allowed both the first and second Dumas to complete their terms without interference

Q.14. Who were the initial leaders of the Allied Powers during World War II, and which two countries
joined them in 1941? (1)
A) UK and USA; joined by Germany and Japan
B) France and Germany; joined by the USSR and USA
C) UK and France; joined by the USSR and USA
D) USA and USSR; joined by the UK and Japan

Q.15. How did the Americans intervene to assist Germany during a financial crisis? (1)
A) By introducing the Treaty of Versailles
B) By implementing the Marshall Plan
C) By introducing the Dawes Plan to rework the terms of reparations
D) By providing military support

Q.16. How many Indian states do not share an international border or have a coastline? (1)
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9

Q.17. Which mountain ranges are included in the geographical region known as Purvachal? (1)
A) Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Vindhya Range, and Satpura Range
B) Patkai hills, Naga hills, Manipur hills, and Mizo hills
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 C) Himalayan Range, Karakoram Range, Zanskar Range, and Pir Panjal Range
D) Aravalli Range, Shivalik Range, Nilgiri Hills, and Anaimalai Hills

Q.18. Which of the following statements about Majuli is correct? (1)

A) Majuli is the largest uninhabited riverine island in the world.
B) Majuli is located in the Ganges River.
C) Majuli, situated in the Brahmaputra River, is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
D) Majuli is a desert island with no vegetation.

Q.19. At which location does the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers occur? (1)
A) Varanasi B) Haridwar C) Deva Prayag D) Rishikesh

Q.20. When was the first complete census conducted in India, and how frequently are censuses held
thereafter? (1)
A) First complete census in 1872, held every five years
B) First complete census in 1881, held every fifteen years
C) First complete census in 1881, held regularly every tenth year
D) First complete census in 1901, held irregularly

SECTION - B

Q.21. Which event in Russian history is known as ‘Bloody Sunday’? (2)

OR
Explain the main demands of ‘April Theses’.

Q.22. Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course? (2)

Q.23. What are the merits of an election competition? (2)

Q.24. What does ‘Social exclusion’ mean? (2)

SECTION – C

Q.25. Study the graph and answer the following questions: (3)

(a) In which year India has the highest literacy rates? 1

(b) Why are women less educated than men? 2

Q.26. How were Darwin and Herbert spencer’s ideas adopted by Hitler or Nazis? Explain. (3)

Q.27. “The Peace Treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace”. Explain the
statement with any three examples. (3)
OR
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 Differentiate between the ideas of the Liberals and Radicals in Europe.

Q.28. Mention any three slogans that were used by political parties during election campaigns and the
purpose behind them. (3)

Q.29. Explain any three social indicators through which poverty is looked upon. (3)
OR
How is the poverty line estimated in India? Describe.

SECTION – D

Q.30. Describe the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India. (5)
OR
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.

Q.31. Explain any five major causes of poverty in India. (5)

OR
State the various Poverty alleviation programmes introduced by the government to reduce poverty.

Q.32. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season. (5)

Q.33. Explain Right to Equality and Right to Freedom. (5)

SECTION – E

Q.34. Read the given text and answer the following questions: (4)
Russia was an autocracy. Unlike other European rulers, even at the beginning of the twentieth
century, the Tsar was not subject to parliament. Liberals in Russia campaigned to end this state of
affairs. Together with the Social Democrats and Socialist Revolutionaries, they worked with peasants
and workers during the revolution of 1905 to demand a constitution. They were supported in the
empire by nationalists (in Poland for instance) and in Muslim-dominated areas, they wanted
modernised Islam to lead their societies. The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian
workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20 per cent. The
membership of workers’ associations rose dramatically. When four members of the Assembly of
Russian Workers, which had been formed in 1904, were dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works, there
was a call for industrial action. Over the next few days over 110,000 workers in St Petersburg went
on strike demanding a reduction in the working day to eight hours, an increase in wages and
improvement in working conditions.
(a) Who were Jadidists? 1
(b) What do mean by the “Tsar was not subject to parliament”? 1
(c) Describe the main causes of the Russian Revolution of 1905. 2

Q.35. Read the given text and answer the following questions: (4)
After Independence, Indian policy makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food
grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in ‘Green Revolution’, especially
in the production of wheat and rice. Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, officially
recorded the impressive strides of Green Revolution in agriculture by releasing a special stamp
entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968.
(a) What strategy did India adopt to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains after Independence?
1
(b) Who officially acknowledged the impressive strides of the Green Revolution in agriculture by
releasing a special stamp entitled 'Wheat Revolution' in July 1968? 1

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 (c) Briefly explain the significance of the 'Green Revolution' in India, especially in the production of
wheat and rice. 2
Q.36. Read the given text and answer the following questions: (4)
The most significant feature of the Indian population is the size of its adolescent population. It
constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India. Adolescents are, generally, grouped in the age
group of 10 to 19 years. They are the most important resource for the future. Nutrition requirements
of adolescents are higher than those of a normal child or adult. Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency
and stunted growth. But in India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients. A
large number of adolescent girls suffer from anemia. Their problems have so far not received
adequate attention in the process of development. The adolescent girls have to be sensitised to the
problems they confront. Awareness among them can be improved through the spread of literacy and
education.
(a) What can poor nutrition in adolescents lead to? 1

(b) What is the status of the diet available to adolescents in India? 1

(c) How can awareness among adolescent girls be improved according to the paragraph? 2

SECTION – F

Q.37. (A) Four features (A, B, C and D) are marked on the given outline map of France- The spread of the
Great Fear, identify the places and write their correct names in your answer sheet. 2

(B) Locate and label the any three features with appropriate symbols on the given outline
political map of India.
1. K2
2. Jim Corbett National Park
3. Tripura
4. Ganga River
5. The state having highest and lowest density of population
6. The direction of the south-west monsoon over India.

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