Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION I
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE OF URDANETA CITY
CAMANTILES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Camantiles, Urdaneta City

SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION

S.Y. 2022-2023

SCIENCE 10
Name: ___________________________Grade and Section: ______________ Score: ______________

I. Read the statements or questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer from the
choices given.

1. These are waves that are created as a result of vibrations between an electric field and magnetic
field.
a. Electromagnetic spectrum
b. Electromagnetic wave
c. Microwave
d. Radio wave
2. He theorized that changing magnetic field will produce electric field.
a. Faraday c. Maxwell
b. Hertz d. Oersted
3. Which property spells the difference between radio wave and microwave radiation?
a. Amplitude c. speed of vacuum
b. Color d. wavelength
4. Which two waves lie ate the beginning and end of the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. Gamma ray and X-ray
b. Microwave and ultraviolet rays
c. Radio wave and gamma ray
d. Radio waves and microwaves
5. Which of the following is correctly arranged from longest to shortest wavelength?
a. Gamma ray, radio wave, infrared
b. Microwave, x-ray, gamma ray
c. Ultraviolet, visible light, radio wave
d. X-ray, gamma ray, ultraviolet
6. In the visible spectrum, which color has the shortest wavelength?
a. Blue c. green
b. Red d. violet
7. Among the given EM waves below, which carries the most energy?
a. Microwave c. ultraviolet ray
b. Radio wave d. visible light
8. Which pair of EM waves is commonly used for communication?
a. X-rays and infrared c. Radio waves and gamma rays
b. Radio waves and microwaves d. infrared and microwaves
9. Radio wave is useful in which of the following applications?
a. Watching television c. Sterilizing medical equipment
b. Treating cancers d. sunbathing
10. All of the following made use of gamma rays except one. Which is it?
a. Treating tumors
b. Treating of cancer through the process called radiotherapy
c. Sterilization of water in drinking fountains
d. Sterilization of medical equipment
11. Infrared waves is useful in which of the following applications?
a. Remote control c. screen of electronic devices
b. Television signal d. night vision goggles
12. Microwaves is useful in which of the following applications?
a. Remote control c. artificial lighting
b. Cellphone communications d. sterilization
13. Which of the following is NOT an application of visible light?
a. Bulb c. cell phone screen
b. Security markings d. flashlight
14. What devices uses thermal imaging technology to capture the light being emitted as heat by
objects in the field of view?
a. Infrared camera c. fluorescent
b. Remote control d. night vision goggles
15. All of the following are dangerous waves when taken by the body in large amounts EXCEPT one.
Which is it?
a. Radio waves c. ultraviolet
b. Gamma rays d. x-rays
16. How does the energy level changes from gamma ray to radio wave?
a. Increases c. cannot be determined
b. Decreases d. energy level does not change
17. The image you see on a plane mirror is placed in _______ direction(s) of real image.
a. Five c. the opposite
b. Multiple directions d. the same
18. A plane mirror has a/an ______ reflecting surface.
a. Angled c. concave
b. Convex d. flat
19. The image in a convex mirror is always ___________.
a. Real, erect and diminished
b. Real, erect, and magnified
c. Virtual, erect and diminished
d. Virtual, inverted, and diminished
20. A typical mirror you look in at home or in a restroom is a _______ mirror.
a. Concave c. convex
b. Parabolic d. plane
21. What type of lens produces smaller and upright images?
a. Concave lens c. convex lens
b. Converging lens d. cannot be determined
22. What type of lens is thicker at the center as compared to its edges?
a. Concave c. Convex
b. Parabolic d. Plane
23. The size of the image is always smaller than the object in __________.
a. Concave mirror c. convex mirror
b. Plane mirror d. silver mirror
24. What type of lens is use to correct nearsightedness?
a. Concave c. parabolic
b. Convex d. plane
25. The image in the plane mirror is _________________.
a. At the same direction in front of the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror
b. At a shorter distance in front of the mirror than the distance that the object is in front of the
mirror
c. Ate the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror
d. At a shorter distance behind the mirror than the distance the object is in front of the mirror.
26. The center of curvature is denoted by letter ____________.
a. c c. C
b. o d. O
27. The image formed by a concave mirror will ___________.
a. Always be real c. be either real and virtual
b. Always be virtual d. will always be magnified
28. The image formed by a convex mirror will __________.
a. Always be real c. be either real or virtual
b. Always be virtual d. will always be magnified
29. The focal length is one-half the distance from the vertex to the ________.
a. Center of curvature c. radius of curvature
b. Principal axis d. none of the above
30. The focal length is denoted by the letter __________.
a. f c. F
b. P d. p
31. A spherical mirror with reflecting surface curved inwards is called ________.
a. Concave mirror c. curved mirror
b. Convex mirror d. none of these
32. The distance from the focal point to the vertex is called _______>
a. Center pf curvature c. focal point
b. Focal length d. vertex.

33. Which lens is used to magnify objects and refract light? This type of lens is curved outward.
a. Concave lens c. parabolic lens
 b. Convex lens d. plane lens
34. Which describes a concave lens?
a. More transparent in the middle
b. Thinner in the middle than the edges
c. Thinner on the edges than in the middle
d. Triangular in shape
35. What kind of lens curves inward toward its center?
a. Convex lens c. mirror
b. Concave d. glasses
36. Which of the following tells the difference between lenses and mirrors?
a. Lenses refract light, mirrors reflect light
b. Lenses make object appear larger, while mirrors give exact copy of object
c. Lenses reflect light, mirrors refract light
d. Lenses produce virtual image, mirrors make real image
37. Concave mirror ____________________________.
a. Bulges out toward the light source
b. Curves towards the center
c. Diverge light rays
d. Creates smaller image of an object
38. Which of the following uses concave lens?
a. Magnifying glass
b. Person with hyperopia
c. nearsighted corrective eyeglasses
39. You see the reflection of the analog type of clock without numbers in your plane mirror. The
image formed by the hands of the clock shows the time of 9: 00. What is the real time?
a. 3:00 c. 1:00
b. 7:00 d. still 3:00
40. Which mirror concept explains why the word AMBULANCE is written in reverse in an
ambulance car?
a. Multiple image c. lateral image
b. Virtual image and real image d. all of the above
41. What kind of mirror is used by dentists in examining tooth cavities?
a. Plane mirror c. convex mirror
b. Concave mirror d. none of these
42. Vehicle’s side mirror are ___________.
a. Plane mirrors c. convex mirror
b. Concave mirror d. none of these
43. Which of the following statements is TRUE about virtual image?
a. Virtual image seems to appear behind the mirror and is upside down
b. Virtual image seems to appear behind the mirror and is seen in an upright position
c. Virtual image is formed after the light rays are reflected from the mirror
d. All of the above
44. The sun’s rays are observed to focus at a point behind the lens. What kind of lens was used?
a. Converging lens c. focusing lens
b. Diverging lens d. none of these
45. Looking through a concave lens, arm-length away can make object appear _________.
 a. smaller and upright c. larger and upright
c. smaller and upside down d. larger and upside down
46. Images in a kaleidoscope are example of a _________
a. Multiple image c. concave mirror
b. Convex mirror d. lateral inversion
47. To correct nearsightedness, a person is prescribed with what kind of lenses?
a. Converging lens c. focusing lens
b. Diverging lens d. none of the above
48. What type of image is formed by the concave side of the spoon when the object is arm-length
away from it?
a. Upright and bigger c. Upright and smaller
b. Upside down and bigger d. Upside down and smaller
49. How will the letter e appear in the mirror?
a. c.
b. d.
50. Which of the following parts of the eyes function like the aperture and iris diaphragm of a
camera?
a. Eyelid and cornea c. pupil and eyelid
b. Retina and cornea d. pupil and iris

Prepared by: Checked by: Noted:

JOEL A. JACOB AGNES N. ACOSTA,EdD MAE L.CALDONA,PhD
Teacher I Head Teacher III Principal I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION I
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE OF URDANETA CITY
CAMANTILES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Camantiles, Urdaneta

SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION

S.Y. 2022-2023

SCIENCE 10
Answer key

1 B 26 C
2 A 27 C
3 C 28 B
4 A 29 C
5 D 30 A
6 A 31 B
7 A 32 B
8 B 33 B
9 A 34 B
10 C 35 B
11 A 36 A
12 B 37 B
13 B 38 C
14 A 39 A
15 A 40 B
16 B 41 B
17 C 42 C
18 D 43 A
19 A 44 B
20 D 45 A
21 A 46 A
22 B 47 B
23 B 48 D
24 A 49 D
25 C 50 D
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION I
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE OF URDANETA CITY
CAMANTILES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Camantiles, Urdaneta City

SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION

S.Y. 2022-2023

SCIENCE 9
Name:____________________________Grade and Section:_______________________Score: ______________

II. Read the statements or questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer from the
choices given.

1. What is the region around the atomic nucleus where the electron is mostly found?
A. Frequency
B. Energy Level
C. Atomic Orbital
D. Atomic Emission Spectrum
2. Which shows the correct order in the following atomic orbitals?
A. f orbital, d orbital, p orbital, s orbital
B. p orbital, f orbital, s orbital, d orbital
C. s orbital, d orbital, f orbital, p orbital
D. s orbital, p orbital, d orbital f orbital
3. Which of the following is the lowest value of that the principal quantum number may have?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
4. What is the group and period of an element with an electronic configuration of 1s 2 2s2 2p6?
A. Group 2 period 3 B. Group 4 period 2
C. Group 8 period 2 D. Group 8 period 4
5. Which orbital designation has the highest energy?
A. 2s B. 2p
C. 3d D. 4s
6. Which statement is NOT correct for an atom with an electron configuration of 1s 22s22p63s23p5?
A. It has 17 electrons
B. It has 3 main energy level
C. The 3p orbitals are completely field
D. The s orbitals are completely filled.
 7. Which electron configuration below is correct?
A. 1s22s22p53s23p6
B. 1s22p63s23p3
C. 1s22s23s22p63p4
D. 1s22s22p63s23p4
8. How many electrons can each p orbital hold?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
9. What happens to the energy of an electron as it goes farther from the nucleus?
A. Its energy increases
B. Its energy decreases
C. Its energy becomes fixed
D. Its energy does not change
10. Which of the following energy levels can accommodate a maximum of 18 electrons?
A. 1st energy level
B. 2nd energy level
C. 3rd energy level
D. 4th energy level
11. Which of the following pair of elements would form an ionic bond?
A. N and F C. Mg and Cl
B. Ca and Li D. O and O
12. Ionic bonds are formed between:
A. Two metals C. Two nonmetals
B. Two nonreactive elements D. Metals and nonmetals
13. Reactive metals are mostly found at the :
A. The right part of the periodic table
B. Left part of the periodic table
C. Middle part of the periodic table
D. Lower part of the periodic table
14. Reactive non-metals are mostly found at the:
A. The right part of the periodic table
B. Left part of the periodic table
C. Middle part of the periodic table
D. Lower part of the periodic table
15. To gain stability, Cl atom must gain an electron to attain the electronic configuration of which
noble gases?
A. Ne B. Kr C. Ar D. He
16. To gain stability, sodium atom must lose 1 electron to attain the electronic configuration of
which noble gases?
A. Ne B. Kr C. F D. He
17. A chemical bonding between the two atoms which shares a single pair of an electron is:
A. single bond C. triple bond
B. double bond D. all of these
18. When does covalent bonding take place?
A. It takes place when atoms attain stability
B. It takes place when atoms collide with one another
C. It takes place when the attraction is weak
D. It takes place when atoms share electron
19. How many bonds can Sr atom form?
A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
20 . How many electrons must an N atom accept to gain stability?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
3+
21. Aluminum ion has a formula of Al , it indicates that Aluminum can:
A. Lost 2 electrons C. Lost 3 electrons
B. Gain 2 electrons D. Gain 5 electrons
2-
22. Sulfide has the formula S , this means that sulfur can gain two electrons from ____.
A. Lithium C. Magnesium
B. Chlorine D. Helium
23. How is covalent bond form?
A. transfer of electrons C. losing of electrons
B. sharing of electrons D. gaining of electrons
24. What kind of bond result when two non-metallic atoms combine?
A. Ionic bond C. Covalent bond
B. Metallic bond D. Nonpolar covalent bond
25. A covalent bond _________.
A. Involves shared electrons
B. Is formed by sharing protons
C. Results from the transfer of electrons
D. Is also called electrovalent
26. Which type of compound results from the combination of metal and non-metal elements?
A. Ionic compounds
B. Covalent molecular compounds
C. Organic compound
D. Acids and bases
27. Which type of compounds result from the combination of two nonmetallic elements?
A. Ionic compounds
B. Covalent molecular compounds
C. Organic compounds
D. Acids and Bases
28. These are electrostatic forces of attraction that results from the complete transfer of electrons from
one atom to another.
A. Covalent bonds C. Metallic bonds
B. Ionic bonds D. Polar and Non Polar Bonds
29. Which of the following example is ionic in nature?
A. CO2 C. NaCl
B. H2O D. CO
30. Which of the following compounds is covalent?
A. Sodium Hydroxide C. Barium Chloride
B. Table Sugar D. Table salt
31. Which of the following properties is best described as the ability of metals to be rolled or hammered
into flat sheets or shapes without breaking?
A. luster C. ductility
B. Malleability D. Electrical conductivity
32. Which of theses group of elements have the characteristics of luster/ shiny?
A. Metalloids C. Metals
B. Non-metals D. Both metals and metalloids
33. Why are metals alloyed?
A. To make them more expensive and durable
B. To enhance their properties
C. To limit their ability to be used as insulators
D. To make them pure and become more useful
34. Why is Aluminum used for making cooking utensils?
A. It is good conductor of heat
B. It is sonorous
C. It is malleable
D. It is ductile
35. Which of the following metals is used in making airplanes?
A. Iron C. Copper
B. Zinc D. Aluminum
36. What do you call the outermost electrons that are free to move between atoms in metals?
A. Cloud of electrons C. Sea of electrons
B. Electro positivity D. Electron configuration
37. These are properties that can be measured and observed without changing the substance’s
chemical composition or identity.
A. Intensive properties C. Extensive Properties
B. Chemical Properties D. Physical Properties
38. To which group of hydrocarbons does the molecule with the structure given:

H-C=C–C–H

H
A. Alkane C. Alkyne
B. Alkene D. Propylene
39. How many types of bonds are there in the given hydrocarbon compound:

H2C = CH – CH3

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
40. To which element can carbon bonds?
A. H B. N C. O D. all of these
41. An organic (carbon molecule) bond represents ______?
A. a transfer of protons C. a pair of shared electrons
B. a transfer of electrons D. a pair of shared protons
42. Amidst COVID-19, DOH advised everyone to thoroughly disinfect their hands with ______.
A. formalin C. acetone
B. isopropyl alcohol D. kerosene
43. Which compound is an alcohol?
H H H H

A. H – C – C – C – H C. H – C = O

H OH H

H H

B. H – C – C - OOH

H H
44. Which are TRUE about the use of isopropyl alcohol?
I. Cleaner II. Fuel III. Disinfectant IV. Fertilizer
A. I, II and III only C. III and IV only
B. II and III only D. I and IV only

45. Honey is applying something to the ball bearings of the wheels of her bicycle so that friction will be
minimized. Which of the following material do you think she is using?
A. vinegar C. kerosene
B. isopropyl alcohol D. lubricating oil
46. What is the common use of methane?
A. disinfectant C. artificial ripening agent
B. fertilizer D. fuel
47. If one dozen of egg is 12 pieces of eggs, how many pieces of paper are there in one Ream?
A. 100 pieces C. 350 pieces
B. 250 pieces D. 500 pieces
48. What is the SI unit for measurement of number of particles in a substance?
A. Kilogram C. ampere
B. Mole D. Kelvin
49. What is the molar mass of Carbon, C?
A. 12. 01 g C. 12. 01 mole
B. 12.01 g / mole D. 12. 01 mole / gram
50. What is the value of one mole of a substance?
A. 6.02 x 1024 C. 6.02 x 1023
26
B. 6.02 x 10 D. 6.03 x 1023

Prepared by: Checked by: Noted:

JOEL A. JACOB AGNES N. ACOSTA,EdD MAE L. CALDONA,PhD
Teacher I Head Teacher III Principal I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION I
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE OF URDANETA CITY
CAMANTILES NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Camantiles, Urdaneta

SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION

S.Y. 2022-2023

SCIENCE 19
Answer key

1 C 26 A
2 D 27 B
3 C 28 B
4 C 29 C
5 C 30 B
6 C 31 B
7 D 32 C
8 D 33 B
9 A 34 A
10 C 35 D
11 C 36 C
12 D 37 D
13 B 38 C
14 A 39 B
15 C 40 D
16 A 41 C
17 A 42 B
18 D 43 A
19 D 44 A
20 B 45 D
21 C 46 D
22 C 47 D
23 B 48 D
24 C 49 A
25 A 50 C