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    MCQ 3

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    Biswamitra Rana

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    POLITICAL SCIENCE

    IMPORTANT MCQS
    200+ QUESTIONS
    PART 3
    FOR ALL EXAMS – UGC NET, B.A., MA,
    ENTRANCE EXAMS, PCS, UPSC
    LYCEUMWITHKSC
    Q1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial
    Assemblies in the year 1946
    b) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in
    January, 1947
    c) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
    d) none of the above

    Answer - (a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial
    Assemblies in the year 1946
    Q2. In a Federal Government, the powers are divided between the
    Centre and the States by
    a) the central government
    b) majority decision
    c) the constitution
    d) the parliament.

    Answer – c) the constitution


    Q3. Who says, “because society is federal, authority must also be
    federal?”
    a) Henry Maine
    b) R. M. Maciver
    c) Bentham
    d) Harold Laski

    Answer - d) Harold Laski


    Q4. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:
    1. Pocket veto
    2. Absolute veto
    3. Suspensive veto
    4. Qualified veto
    (a) 2 and 3
    (b) 1, 3 and 4
    (c) 2, 3 and 4
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Answer - (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Q5. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was
    enforced in the year :
    a) 2012
    b) 2013
    c) 2015
    d) 2016

    Correct Answer: d) 2016


    Q6. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
    (a) the Budget is modified and presented again
    (b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
    (c) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
    (d) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign

    Answer - (c) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of


    Ministers
    Q7. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
    a) G.S. Dhillon
    b) Baliram Bhagat
    c) Hukum Singh
    d) K.V.K. Sundaram

    Answer – d) K.V.K. Sundaram


    Q8. Identify the philosopher who first made the two basic ecological
    divides:

    A) Thomas Malthus
    B) Arne Naess
    C) Ann Dale
    D) Paul Wood

    Answer: B) Arne Naess


    Q9. Which among the following philosophers believed that ‘the primary
    purpose of government was to keep order’:

    A) Edmund Burke
    B) C.W. Mills
    C) Jean Jacques Rousseau
    D) Leo Tolstoy

    Answer: A) Edmund Burke


    Q10. Which of these is true regarding dependency theory :
    (1) Development of colonies is viewed as Whiteman’s burden.
    (2) Third world nations provide natural resources and cheap labour.
    (3) Industrialization and market economy are conducive for development.
    (4) Advanced western nations perpetuate a state of dependency by various
    means.
    Codes :
    a) (2) and (3)
    b) (2) and (4)
    c) (1) and (3)
    d) (1) and (4)

    Answer - b) (2) and (4)


    Q11. Which of the following is not the basic principle of Hans J.
    Morgenthou’s realism ?
    A) Politics is rooted in the human nature
    B) Politics is autonomous
    C) National interest is defined in terms of power
    D) Politics is governed by Universal moral values.

    Answer - D) Politics is governed by Universal moral values.


    Q12. Modernization is commonly understood as being similar to:
    1) Westernization
    2) Europeanization
    3) Rise of Nation State System
    4) Industrialization
    Choose the correct answer from the below:
    a) (3), (4)
    b) (2), (3)
    c) (1), (2), (3)
    d) (1), (2), (3), (4)

    Answer - d) (1), (2), (3), (4)


    Q13. Who of the following belongs to British School of Realism ?
    A) Reinhold Niebuhr
    B) N.J. Spykman
    C) Quincy Wright
    D) Hedley Bull

    Answer - D) Hedley Bull


    Q14. Who among the following regards political development as
    political modernization plus institutionalization?

    A) Almond
    B) Helio Jaquaribe
    C) Cyril Black
    D) None of the above

    Answers: B) Helio Jaquaribe


    Q15. Montesquieu’s theory of separation of powers emphasises
    primarily on :
    A) Accountability
    B) Efficiency
    C) Transparency
    D) Liberty

    Answer - D) Liberty
    Q16. Which one of the following countries strongly opposed the
    establishment of the International Criminal Court as it meant undermining
    of state sovereignty:

    A) France
    B) UK
    C) US
    D) Italy

    Answer: C) US
    Q17. Which theory of international relations accommodates the roles
    for non-state actors?
    a) Realist Theory
    b) Neorealism
    c) Liberal
    d) none of these

    Answer : c) Liberal
    Q18. THE Indian delegation to the First World Conference on Human Rights
    was led by :
    A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
    B) Farooq abdullah
    C) Dinesh Singh
    D) Alam Khan

    Answer - A. Dr. Manmohan Singh


    Q19. Which of these is not related to Neo realist theory of International
    Relations :
    a) Actors react in an anarchial environment
    b) Structure plays an important role in International Politics
    c) States are always engaged in the process of monopoly capitalism
    d) Distrust and fear between the state actors creates problem of
    security dilemma

    Answer – c) States are always engaged in the process of monopoly


    capitalism
    Q20. Harold Lasswell’s “Politics: Who Gets, What, when and How”
    discusses:
    a) Distributive justice
    b) Scientific method and value-relativism
    c) Social implications of political participation
    d) Fundamentals of political participation

    Answer - b) Scientific method and value-relativism


    Q21. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other
    labelled as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A): Systems approach to comparative politics believes in the balance
    between the input structure and the output structure to maintain the
    equilibrium.
    Reason (R): Systems approach is criticised as a ‘status quoist’ model.

    A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Answer - B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
    (A).
    Q22. Which one of the following is the two environments exist in Input-
    Output approach according to David Easton:
    a) International and National environments
    b) Social and Political environments
    c) Internal and External environments
    d) Intra-societal and Extra-societal environments.

    Answer -d) Intra-societal and Extra-societal environments.


    Q23. Which of the following statements is not true in case of M.N. Roy ?
    A) He prepared a model constitution for free India.
    B) Sovereign power was to be vested in the people.
    C) People’s committees to be set up in villages, towns and cities.
    D) He did not concede the right of secession to its constituent units.

    Answer - D) He did not concede the right of secession to its constituent


    units.
    Q24. Who is associated with “self respect movement” ?
    a) Vinoba Bhave
    b) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    c) B R Ambedkar
    d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    Answer – b) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker


    Q25. For Locke, which of the following statements is not true ?
    (1) The state must be a constitutional state.
    (2) Government must possess discretionary power.
    (3) It is a tolerant state.
    (4) The right to property is not a natural right.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    A) (1) and (3)
    B) (1) and (2)
    C) (2) only
    D) (4) only

    Answer - D) (4) only


    Q26. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are
    charged from the
    a) Consolidated Fund of India
    b) Contingency Fund of India
    c) Consolidated Fund of the State
    d) Contingency Fund of the State

    Answer - c) Consolidated Fund of the State


    Q27. Which institution in a federal system is called ‘Balancing Wheel of
    the Constitution’?
    a) legislature
    b) executive
    c) judiciary
    d) press

    Answer – c) judiciary
    Q28. What is the legal basis for the establishment of Cabinet
    Committees in India?
    A) Rules for Parliamentary procedure.
    B) Allocation of Business Rules, Government of India.
    C) Resolution of Cabinet.
    D) Decision of Prime Minister.

    Answer: B) Allocation of Business Rules, Government of India.


    Q29. "The Supreme Court of India is at long last becoming, after 32 years
    of the republic, the Supreme Court for Indians." Who said this?
    A) Justice V. R. Krishna Aiyyer
    B) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
    C) Upendra Baxi
    D) Nani Palkhiwala

    Answer: C) Upendra Baxi


    Q30. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have resulted in:
    (1) Transparency in the governance
    (2) Accountability in governance
    (2) Gender empowerment
    (4) Deepening of democracy

    a) (3) and (4)


    b) (1) and (3)
    c) (2), (3) and (4)
    d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

    Answer - d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)


    Q31. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises
    municipal elections as per
    A) Article 325
    B) Article 241
    C) Article 243-K
    D) Article 245-D

    Answer: C) Article 243-K


    Q32. Which of the following statements about controller & Auditor General of India
    are correct?
    (i) It is a British Legacy.
    (ii) It is independent and autonomous to undertake public audit.
    (iii) It does not have the power to determine the nature and extent of the audit.
    (iv) It has the inherent right to determine what should be included in the audit
    report.

    A) (i), (ii), (iii)


    B) (i), (ii), (iv)
    C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
    D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

    Answer: B) (i), (ii), (iv)


    Q33. What is true about peace making ?
    a) It is like classical peace-keeping. It refers to the deployment of a UN
    force in the field with the consent of all parties.
    b) It involves developing social, political and economic infrastructure to
    prevent further violence and consolidate peace.
    c) It involves confidence-building measures, fact finding and preventive
    deployment of UN authorised forces.
    d) It is designed to bring hostile parties to agreement essentially through
    peaceful means.

    Answer – d) It is designed to bring hostile parties to agreement essentially


    through peaceful means.
    Q34. Neo liberal ideas were first implemented in which of the following
    countries :
    a) West Germany
    b) East Germany
    c) North Korea
    d) South Korea

    Answer – a)West Germany


    Q35. Who is portrayed as “Father of Cultural Nationalism”
    a) J G Herder
    b) Frantz Fanon
    c) Charles Morras
    d) G Mazzini

    Answer – a) J G Herder
    Q36. Consider the following statements about arms control:
    (1) It’s meant to build the security dilemma.
    (2) It’s a defensive strategy in principle.
    (3) It does take a peace without weapons stance.
    (4) It aims at mutual security between partners and over stability.
    Choose the correct statements from the code given below:
    A) (2), (3) and (4)
    B) (2) and (4)
    C) (2) and (3)
    D) (1), (3) and (4)

    Answer - B) (2) and (4)


    Q37. NATO’s partnership for peace programme was aimed at
    (A) Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc states into the organisation.
    (B) Tackling problem of Serbs in Bosnia.
    (C) Implementing military action against Yugoslavia.
    (D) Taking action against Al Asad Regime in Syria.

    Answer - (A) Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc states into the organisation.


    Q38. Which of the following thinkers regard International Relations as
    an autonomous discipline :
    1. C A W Manning
    2. Karlin Copper
    3. Martin Wright
    4. Hoffson

    A) 1, 2 and 3
    B) 2, 3 and 4
    C) 3, 4 and 1
    D) 1, 2 and 4

    Answer – D) 1, 2 and 4
    Q39. India is not a member of which of the following multilateral
    export control regime
    a) Missile Technology Control Regime
    b) Nuclear Suppliers Group
    c) Australia Group
    d) Wassenar Arrangement

    Answer – b) Nuclear Suppliers Group


    Q40. Which of the following characteristics does not describe the
    bourgeoisie?
    A) They are the employers of wage-laborers
    B) They are the owners of the means of production
    C) They are the class of modem Capitalists
    D) They were the ruling class in the feudal period

    Answer: D) They were the ruling class in the feudal period

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