NEET 11 - Full Test

NEET 11 - Full Test
Questions
1. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers represents an impossible arrangement?
(a) n = 3, l = 2, m l = − 2, m s = 1 / 2
(b) n = 4, l = 0, m l = 0, m s = 1 / 2
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m l = − 3, m s = 1 / 2
(d) n = 5, l = 3, m l = 0, m s = − 1 / 2
2. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(a) Al 3 + > Mg 2 + > Na + > F − > O 2 −
(b) Na + > Mg 2 + > Al 3 + > O 2 − > F −
(c) Na + > F − > Mg 2 + > O 2 − > Al 3 +
(d) O 2 − > F − > Na + > Mg 2 + > Al 3 +
3. In a given shell, the order of screening effect is

(a) s > p > d > f
(b) f > d > p > s
(c) p < d < s < f
(d) d > f < s > p
4. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali and ions is:

(a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+
(b) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(c) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+
(d) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
5. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Pb2+ is a reducing agent and Sn2+ is not a reducing agent
(b) Both Pb2+ and Sn2+ are reducing agents
(c) Pb2+ is not a reducing agent while Sn2+ is a reducing agent.
(d) Both Pb2+ and Sn2+ are not reducing agents.
6. Which of the following tetrahlides does not act as Lewis acid?

(a) SnCl4
(b) GeCl4
(c) SiF4
(d) CCl4
7. Tautomerism is not exhibited by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. Which carbocation is the most stable?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. Nitration of benzene by nitric acid and sulphuric acid is

(a) Electrophilic substitution
(b) Electrophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution
(d) Free radical substitution
10. Consider the following reaction occurring in an automobile.
2C8H18(g) + 25O2(g) → 16CO2(g) + 18H2O(g)
The sign of ∆ H, ∆ S and ∆ G would be
(a) +, –, +
(b) –, +, –
(c) –, +, +
(d) +, +, –
11. Number of possible isomers (including stereoisomers) with molecular formula C4H8 is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
12.
Which of these species is anti-aromatic?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) both II and III
13. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(a) O 2
(b) CN −
(c) CO
(d) NO +
14. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in
acidic solution is
2
(a)
5
3
(b)
5
4
(c)
5
(d) 1
15. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) C-F bond is stronger than Si-F bond because C-F bond length is shorter than that of Si-F
(b) C-F bond is weaker than Si-F bond because of less difference in electronegativity
Si-F bond is stronger than C-F bond because of double bond character due to back
(c)
bonding from F to Si
(d) Si-F bond is stronger than C-F bond due to more difference in electronegativities
16. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 13 elements is
(a) Al < Ga < ln < TI
(b) Ga < Al < In < TI
(c) Al < In < Ga < TI
(d) Al < Ga < TI < In
17. Modern periodic table is based on the

(a) atomic mass
(b) mass density
(c) atomic number
(d) atomic volume.
18. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution
according to the following reaction?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
(a) 1.25g
(b) 1.32g
(c) 3.65g
(d) 9.50g
19. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8pm, What is the radius of third Bohr Orbit
of Li2+ ion ?
(a) 158.7 pm
(b) 15.87 pm
(c) 1.587 pm
(d) 158.7 Å
20. The lUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(a) ununennium
(b) unnilennium
(c) unununnium
(d) ununoctium
21. The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e / m (charge/mass) for e, p, n, α is:
(a) e, p, n, α
(b) n, p, e, α
(c) n, p, α, e
(d) n, α, p, e
22. The hydroxide, which is best soluble in H 2O is
(a) Ba(OH) 2
(b) Mg(OH) 2
(c) Sr(OH) 2
(d) Ca(OH) 2
23. Ammoniacal silver nitrate forms a while precipitate easily with

(a) CH3C ≡ CH
(b) CH3C ≡ CCH3
(c) CH3CH = CH2
(d) CH2 = CH2
24. Assertion: Toluene on Friedel Crafts methylation gives o- and p-xylene.

Reason: -CH3 group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density at o- and p- position.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
25. According to Graham’s law at a given temperature, the ratio of the rates of diffusion rA and
rB of gases A and B is given by (where P and M are the pressures and molecular weights of
gases A and B respectively)
(a) (PA/PB) (MA/MB)1/2
(b) (MA/MB) (MB/MA)1/2
(c) (PA/PB) (MB/MA)1/2
(d) (PA/MB) (PB/PA)1/2
26. The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the
reaction given below at 25 ∘ C in kJ is
2C6H 6 ( ℓ ) + 15O 2 ( g ) → 12CO 2 ( g ) + 6H 2O ( ℓ )

(a) -7.43
(b) +7.43
(c) -3.72
(d) +3.72
27. The number of water molecules form hydrogen bond with sulphate group in CuSO4.5H2O.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 5
28. Among Al 2O 3, SiO 2, P 2O 3 and SO 2 the correct order of acid strength is
(a) Al 2O 3 < SiO 2 < SO 2 < P 2O 3
(b) SiO 2 < SO 2 < Al 2O 3 < P 2O 3
(c) SO 2 < P 2O 3 < SiO 2 < Al 2O 3
(d) Al 2O 3 < SiO 2 < P 2O 3 < SO 2
29. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol (CH 3OH) is supplied. What is the mole fraction
of methyl alcohol in the solution?
(a) 0.100
(b) 0.190
(c) 0.085
(d) 0.050
30. Bond energies of H - H bond is 80 kJ/mol, l-l bond is 100 kJ/mol and for H-l bond is 200 kJ/mol,
the enthalpy of the reaction:
H2(g) + l2(g) → 2Hl(g) is
(a) –120 kJ/mol
(b) –220 kJ/mol
(c) +100 kJ/mol
(d) +120 kJ/mol
31. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(a) CH3CHO and CH3Br
(b) BrCH2CHO
(c) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3

(d) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
(i) X
32.
CH 3C ≡ CCH 3 → CH 3 − C −C − CH 3
( ii ) H 2O / Zn || ||
O O
X in the above reaction is
(a) HNO 3
(b) O 2
(c) O 3
(d) KMnO 4
33. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?

(a) HNO2 and NaNO2
(b) NaOH and NaCl
(c) HNO3 and NH4NO3
(d) HCl and KCl
34. For the redox reaction
MnO4− + C 2O24 − + H + → Mn 2 + + CO2 + H 2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
− 2−
(a) MnO 4 → 2; C2O 4 → 5; H + → 16
(b) MnO 4− → 16; C2O 24 − → 5; H + → 2
− 2−
(c) MnO 4 → 5; C2O 4 → 16; H + → 2
− 2−
(d) MnO 4 → 2; C2O 4 → 16; H + → 5
35. Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to

(a) H 2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) ⇌2HI ( g )
(b) Fe ( s ) + S ( s ) ⇌FeS ( s )
(c) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ⇌2NH 3 ( g )
(d) N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ⇌2NO ( g )
36. Which one of the following has highest Lewis acid strength?
(a) BI3
(b) BBr3
(c) BF3
(d) BCl3
37. The temporary hardness of water is due to:

(a) Na2SO4
(b) NaCl
(c) Ca(HCO3)2
(d) CaCl2
38. Which of the following has the maximum number of atoms?

(a) 24 g of C (12)
(b) 56 g of Fe (56)
(c) 27 g of Al (27)
(d) 108 g of Ag (108)
39. The gas phase reaction 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) is an exothermic reaction. The decomposition of
N2O4, in equilibrium mixture of NO2(g) and N2O4(g), can be increased by:
(a) addition of an inert gas at constant pressure.
(b) lowering the temperature
(c) increasing the pressure
(d) addition of an inert gas at constant volume.
40. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant, is produced by:

(a) Classical smog
(b) Acid rain
(c) Organic waste
(d) Photochemical smog
41. O-nitro phenol is more volatile than p-nitro phenol. It is due to
intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(a)
in p-nitro phenol
(b) intermolecular hydrogen boding in o-nitrophenol.
stronger intramolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitro phenol as compared to o-nitro
(c)
phenol.
stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitro phenol as compared to p-nitro
(d)
phenol.
42. Which of the following reactions depicts the oxidising property of SO2?
(a) SO2 + H 2O → H 2SO3
(b) 2H 2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H 2O
(c) Cl 2 + SO2 → SO2Cl 2
− 2− 2+
(d) 2MnO4 + 5SO2 + 2H 2O → 5SO4 + 2Mn + 4H +
43. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
44. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T(K). The
correct option for the pH of dimethyl ammonium acetate solution is:
(a) 7.75
(b) 6.25
(c) 8.50
(d) 5.50
45. The density of the gas X is twice that of gas Y. If the molecular mass of gas X is 4g/mol then
the molecular mass of gas Y is
(a) 8g/mol
(b) 4g/mol
(c) 2g/mol
(d) 6g/mol
46. If electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2, then emitted energy is

(a) 10.2eV
(b) 12.09eV
(c) 1.9eV
(d) 0.65eV
47. Ratio of energy of a photon of wavelength 200 nm to that of 400 nm is

1
(a)
4
(b) 4:1
1
(c)
2
(d) 2:1
( )
48.
a
At low pressure, Vander Waal’s equation is reduced to P + V = RT for one mole of a gas.
V2
Then the compressibility factor can be given as

a
(a) 1 −
RTV
RTV
(b) 1 − a
a
(c) 1 +
RTV
RTV
(d) 1 +
a
49. Elements of group 13 mainly form covalent compounds because

(a) Size of ions is small
(b) Sum of three ionization energies is very high
(c) Electronegativity values are high
(d) All of these
50. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of solute in

(a) 1000 g of solvent
(b) 1.0 L of solvent
(c) 1.0 L of solution
(d) 22.4 L of solution
51. Velocity-time graph for a moving object is shown in the figure. Total displacement of the
object during the time interval when there is non-zero acceleration or retardation is
(a) 60 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 40 m
52. Which of the following is correct about friction?

(a) It opposes relative motion between two objects in contact
(b) It is the only non-conservative force
(c) It is a conservative force
(d) None of the above
53. Two stones are projected with the same speed but making different angles with the
horizontal. Their ranges are equal. If the angle of projection of one is π/3 and its maximum
height is H, then the maximum height of the other will be:
(a) 3H
(b) 2H
(c) H/2
(d) H/3
54. A string breaks if its tension exceeds 10 Newton. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string of
length 10 cm is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can
be
(a) 20 rad/s
(b) 40 rad/s
(c) 100 rad/s
(d) 200 rad/s
55. The string of pendulum of length l is displaced through 90° from the vertical and released.
Then the maximum tension in the string during its motion is:
(a) mg
(b) 3mg
(c) 5mg
(d) 6 mg
56. A body of mass m starts falling from a point at a distance 2R from the Earth’s surface. Its
kinetic energy when it has fallen to a point at a distance ‘R’ from the Earth’s surface [R-Radius
of Earth, M-mass of Earth, G-Gravitational Constant] is:
1 GMm
(a)
2 R
1 GMm
(b)
6 R
2 GMm
(c)
3 R
1 GMm
(d) 3 R
57. A solid homogenous sphere of mass M and radius r is moving on a rough horizontal surface
partly rolling and partly sliding. During this kind of motion of this sphere
(a) total kinetic energy is conserved
the angular momentum of the sphere about the point of contact with the plane is
(b)
conserved
(c) only the rotational kinetic energy about the centre of mass is conserved
(d) angular momentum about the centre of mass is conserved
58. If the density of the earth is doubled keeping its radius constant then acceleration due to
gravity will be (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 19.6 m/s2
(b) 9.8 m/s2
(c) 4.9 m/s2
(d) 2.45 m/s2
59. The bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is:

(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
(d) Between 0 and 1
60. A constant force F = 20 N is acting on a body of mass m,which is moving with constant velocity
v = 5 m/s as shown in the figure (θ = 600). The power P exerted is
(a) 100 W
(b) 50 W
(c) 86.6 W
(d) 0W
61. α
If v = β × e − βtwhere v is speed at t is time. Find the respective dimensions of β and α .
(a) M0L 0T − 1, M0L 0T − 2
(b) M0L 0T − 1, M0LT − 2
(c) M0LT − 1, M0LT − 2
(d) MLT − 1, MLT − 2
62. Three masses 3 kg, 5 kg and 2 kg are connected to each other with threads and are placed on
a smooth table as shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which the system is moving ?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 1 m/s2
(b) 4 m/s2
(c) 2 m/s2
(d) 3 m/s2
63. A mercury drop of 1 cm radius is broken into 106 small drops. The energy used will be
(surface tension of mercury is 35×10-2 N/m)
(a) 4.35×10-2 J
(b) 2.2×10-4 J
(c) 8.8×10-4 J
(d) 104 J
64. A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley weighting 320 kg. The trolley is resting on
frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley with a speed of 1 m/s, then
after 4 sec his displacement relative to the ground will be
(a) 5 m
(b) 4.8 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 3.0 m
65. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L(L < H/2). Cross-sectional are A/5 is immersed such
that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser
liquid as shown in the figure. The lower density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure
P0. Then density D of solid is given by
5
(a) d
4
4
(b) d
5
(c) d
d
(d)
5
66. A capillary tube when immersed vertically in liquid records a rise of 3 cm. If the tube is
immersed in the liquid at an angle 60° with the vertical. The length of the liquid column along
the tube is
(a) 9 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 2 cm
67. Excess pressure inside a soap bubble is three times that of the other bubble, then the ratio of
their volumes will be
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 1 : 27
(d) 1 : 81
68. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from a hot source occurs at a wavelength of 11
× 10-5 cm. According to Wein’s law, the temperature of the soruce (on Kelvin scale) will be n
times the temperature of another source (on Kelvin scale) for which the wavelength at
maximum energy is 5.5 × 10-5 cm. The value of n is
(a) 2
(b) 4
1
(c) 2
(d) 1
69. The rate of radiation from a black body of temperature 0oC is E J/s. The rate of radiation (in
J/s) from this black body when at temperature 273oC will be
(a) 16 E
(b) 8E
(c) 4E
(d) E
70. A system changes from the state (P1, V1) to (P2V2) as shown in the figure. What is the work
done by the system?
(a) 7.5 × 105 joule

(b) 7.5 × 105 erg
(c) 12 × 105 joule
(d) 6 × 105 joule
71. A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P1, V1) to (P2, V2) by two different process.
The quantity which will remain same will be
(a) ∆ Q
(b) ∆ W
(c) ∆ Q + ∆ W
(d) ∆ Q - ∆ W
72. Two gases are at absolute temperature 300 K and 350 K respectively. The ratio of average
kinetic energies of their molecules is
√
3.5
(a) 3
√
3
(b) 3.5
(c) 6 : 7
(d) 36 : 49
73. A S.H.M. is represented by x = 5√2(sin2πt + cos2πt), where x is in cm. The amplitude of the
S.H.M. is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 5√2 cm
(d) 50 cm
74. Find the time elapsed between points P and Q, if the time period of oscillation is T.
T
(a)
3
T
(b)
4
2T
(c)
3
3T
(d)
4
75. The density of the material of a wire used in sonometer is 7.5 × 103 kg/m3. If the stress on the
wire is 3.0 × 108 N/m2, the speed of transverse wave in the wire will be -
(a) 100 m/s
(b) 200 m/s
(c) 300 m/s
(d) 400 m/s
76. With a closed end organ pipe of length L, the fundamental tone has a frequency :
(a) (v/2L) and all harmonics are present
(b) (v/4L) and all harmonics are present
(c) (v/4L) and only odd harmonics are present
(d) (v/4L) and only even harmonics are present
77. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The velocities of the liquid in the two sections, which
have areas of cross-section A1 and A2, are v1 and v2 respectively. The difference in the levels
of the liquid in the two vertical tube is h. Then choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The volume of the liquid flowing through the tube in unit time is A1v1
(b) v2 − v1 = √2gh
2 2
(c) v2 − v1 = 2gh
(d) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the same in both section of the tube
78. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion: The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain.
Reason: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to height, density of liquid and
acceleration due to gravity.
If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(a)
assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(b)
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
79. A particle starts from rest with acceleration a = Kt2 (where K is constant).Then find the
velocity of the particle at t = 3 second.
(All quantities are measured in SI unit)
(a) 2K
(b) 9K
(c) 3K
(d) K/3
80. A river flows at the rate of 5 km/h. A boatman who can row a boat at a speed of 10 km/h in
still water, goes a distance of 30 km upstream and then comes back. The time taken by him to
complete his journey is
(a) 6 hr
(b) 7 hr
(c) 12 hr
(d) 8 hr
81. A particle of mass m is moving with horizontal speed 6 m/sec as shown in figure, if m << M
then for one dimensional elastic collision, the speed of lighter particle after collision will be
(a) 2 m/s in original direction

(b) 2 m/s opposite to the original direction
(c) 4 m/s opposite to the original direction
(d) 4 m/s in original direction
82. The dimensions of thermal resistance is

(a) M-1 L-2 T3 K
(b) ML2 T2 K-1
(c) ML2 T-3 K
(d) ML2 T-2 K-2
83. A plane wave is represented by x = 1.2sin(2t + 3.14y). Where x and y are distance measured
along in x and y direction in meters and t is time in seconds. This wave has
(a) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in -ve x direction
(b) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in -ve y direction
(c) A wavelength of 2 m and travels in –ve y direction
(d) A wavelength of 2 m and travels in –ve x direction
84. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a material medium, the quantities
transmitted in the direction of propagation are:
(a) energy, momentum and mass
(b) energy
(c) energy and mass
(d) energy and linear momentum
85. Find the value of maximum tension,among three strings shown in figure (take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 20 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 60 N
(d) 30 N
86. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it
from 5 cm to 15 cm is:-
(a) 16 J
(b) 8 J
(c) 32 J
(d) 24 J
87. If a particle moves on a circle, describing equal angles in equal time intervals, the velocity
vector
(a) remains constant
(b) changes in magnitude
(c) changes in direction
(d) changes both in magnitude and direction
88. In an equilateral triangle ABC, F1, F2 and F3 are three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and
AC as shown in the given figure. What should be the magnitude of F3 so that the total torque
about O is zero:-
(a) 2N
(b) 4N
(c) 6N
(d) 8N
89. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the
same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed
twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere/Ecylinder) will
be:-
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 5
90. → → 1 → →
The ratio of magnitude of vector P &Q is 2 . If the resultant of vector P &Q is perpendicular to
→ → →
vector P. Find the angle between P andQ.
(a) 150o
(b) 120o
(c) 60o
(d) 30o
91. A t = 0, the positions of particles are as shown in figure. They are kept on a smooth surface
and being mutually attracted by gravitational force. Find the position of centre of mass at t =
2s
(a) X=5m
(b) X=7m
(c) X=3m
(d) X=0m
92. A force F is applied on the wire of radius r and length L and change in the length of wire is l. If
the force 2F is applied on the wire of the same material and radius 2r and length 2l, then the
change in length of the other wire is
(a) l
(b) 2l
(c) l /2
(d) 4l
93. Liquid is filled in a vessel which is kept in a room with temperature 20oC. When the
temperature of the liquid is 80o C, then it loses heat at the rate of 60 cal /s. What will be the
rate of loss of heat when the temperature of the liquid is 40o C.
(a) 180 cal/s
(b) 40 cal/s
(c) 30 cal/s
(d) 20 cal/s
94. Starting from the mean position a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period 2 s. After
what time (from the start) will its kinetic energy be equal to 25% of the total energy (for the
first time)?
1
(a) s
6
1
(b) s
4
1
(c) s
3
1
(d) 12 s
95. The driver of a car travelling with a speed 30 ms-1 towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency
300 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 ms-1, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by
driver is
(a) 300 Hz
(b) 360 Hz
(c) 720 Hz
(d) 500 Hz
96. Figure shows the shape of part of a long string in which transverse waves are produced by
attaching one end of the string to tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz. What is the velocity of the
waves?
(a) 1 ms-1
(b) 1.5 ms-1
(c) 2.0 ms-1
(d) 2.5 ms-1
97. This question consists of two statements each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering This question you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
Assertion: If the product of surface area and density is same for two planets, escape
velocities will be same for both.
Reason: Product of surface area and density is proportional to the mass of the planet per
unit radius of the planet.
If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of
(a)
Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b)
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
98. A mass m moves with a velocity υ and collides inelastically with another identical mass at rest.
After collision the first mass moves with velocity v/ √3 in direction perpendicular to the initial
direction of motion. Find the speed of the second mass after collision.
(a) v
(b) √3v
2
(c) v
√3
v
(d)
√3
99. 1 1 1
N smooth spheres are placed in a row and their masses are in the ratio 1 : e : 2
⋯ where e
e eN − 1
= coefficient of restitution. If a velocity v is given to the first sphere, then the velocity of the
last sphere is
(a) e N − 1v
(b) e Nv
2
(c) e N v
(d) e N − 2v
100. A thin uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal table. Two point
masses m and 2m moving on the same horizontal table with speeds 2v and v respectively in
opposite directions, strike the bar [as shown in the fig.] and stick to the bar after collision.
Denoting angular velocity (about the centre of mass), total energy and centre of mass
velocity by ω, E and vcrespectively, we have after collision
3v
A: vc = 0 B: ω = 5a
v 3mv 2
C : ω = 5a D: E = 5
(a) only A is true
(b) only B,C are true
(c) only C,D are true
(d) A,C,D are true
101. Identify A to E in the given figure:
A–Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, B–Lactic acid, C–3-Phosphoglyceric acid, D–Ethanol + CO2,

(a)
E–Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate
A–Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate, B–3-Phosphoglyceric acid, C–Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid,
(b)
D–Ethanol + CO2, E–Lactic acid
A–Lactic acid, B–Ethanol + CO2, C–Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate, D–Phosphoenol Pyruvic
(c)
acid, E–3-Phosphoglyceric acid
A–3-Phosphoglyceric acid, B–Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, C–Lactic acid, D–Glyceraldehyde
(d)
3-Phosphate, E–Ethanol + CO2
102. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are respectively required to make one molecule of
glucose through Calvin cycle?
(a) 3 and 2
(b) 9 and 6
(c) 18 and 12
(d) 12 and 18
103. Glycocalyx (mucilage sheath) of a bacterial cell may occur in the form of a loose sheath
called _____ or it may be thick and tough called _____
(a) Capsule, slime layer
(b) Slime layer, capsule
(c) Mesosome, capsule
(d) Mesosome, slime layer
104. Among the following, select the only free-living N2 -fixers: Nostoc, Anabaena, Rhizobium,
Frankia, Azotobacter, Rhodospirillum, Beijernickia, Nitrobacter and Thiobacillus.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 7
105. How many number of CO2 molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of glucose
during C3 cycle?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Six
(d) Five
106. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following
anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
(a) Secondary phloem
(b) Protoxylem
(c) Cortical cells
(d) Secondary xylem
107. Match List-I with List-II.
List I List II
(a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase
(b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules
(c) Surface tension (iii) Water loss in liquid phase
(d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(iii)
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i)
108. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its functions?
(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

(b) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(c) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
109. A specialised, differentiated form of the plasma membrane in bacteria that contains
vesicles, tubules and lamellae, is called
(a) Chromatophore
(b) Plasmodesmata
(c) Mesosome
(d) Inclusion bodies
110. Which of the following defines protonema?

(a) An autotrophic filamentous stage of mosses
(b) An autotrophic filamentous stage of brown algae
(c) A type of venation in bryophytes
(d) The arrangement of spores inside the sporangia
111. Study the following statement.

(i) Reproduce asexually by non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes.
(ii) Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
(iii) The food is stored as floridean starch.
The organism having following characteristics can be placed under:
(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae
(d) Ferns
112. Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching.
(a) a-Haplontic life cycle, b-diplontic life cycle, c-haplodiplontic life cycle
(b) a-Haplodiplontic life cycle, b-diplontic life cycle, c-haplontic life cycle
(c) a-Diplontic life cycle, b-haplodiplontic life cycle, c-haplontic life cycle
(d) a-Haplontic life cycle, b-haplodiplontic life cycle, c-diplontic life cycle
113. This question that follows has two statements (Assertion and Reason). Statement II (R) is
supposed to be the explanation for statement I (A). Study both the statements carefully and
then mark your answers, according to the codes given below.
Assertion: In gymnosperms the male and female gametophytes do not have independent
existence.
Reason: They remain within the sporangia retained on the sporophyte.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
114. Select incorrect option w.r.t. gymnosperm structure and its associated function.
(a) Sunken stomata in conifers – Reduce water loss
(b) Coralloid roots in Cycas – Involved in nitrogen fixation
(c) Nucellus – Nutritive tissue in megasporangium
(d) Gametophytes – Independent or Free-living
115. Binomial Nomenclature is the system

A. Given by Carolus Linnaeus
B. Practised by scientists of Botany only
C. Provides a name with two components
D. Inconvenient than earlier naming systems
How many of the statements are correct?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
116. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following
statements is not correct?
C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants
(a)
have much lower temperature optimum
Tomato is a greenhouse crop that can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher
(b)
yield
(c) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(d) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
117. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in
the mesophyll cells.
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
118. Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List - I List - II
(a) Manganese (i) Activates the enzyme catalase
(b) Magnesium (ii) Required for pollen germination
(c) Boron (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration
(d) Iron (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis
(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii)

(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iii)
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iv)
119. Assertion: Deficiency of any one essential element cannot be met by supplying some other
element.
Reason: The requirement of the essential element must be specific and not replaceable by
another element.
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(a)
Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(b)
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
120. Read the given statements and select the correct options:
Statement I: Respiration is an amphibolic pathway.
Statement II: Respiratory pathway is involved in both catabolism and anabolism.
121. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(b) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
(c) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(d) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
122. Select the correct statement regarding the Blackman’s law
The rate of a chemical process affected by several factors is determined by the factor
(a)
which is farthest from its minimal value
(b)
which is nearest to its minimal value
(c)
which is nearest to its maximum value
(d)
which is nearest to its optimum value
123. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is

(a) Succinic acid
(b) Phosphoglyceric acid
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Oxaloacetic acid
124. Match list I with list II.
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i)

(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii)
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii)
125. Cell A has water potential -3 bars and cell B has water potential -8 bars, the movement of
water will be from
(a) Cell A to B
(b) Cell B to A
(c) No movement of H2O
(d) None of these
126. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
(i) Pure water has the highest water potential i.e., zero.
(ii) Process of diffusion does not require any input of energy.
(iii) Water moves from the system containing water at higher water potential to the one
having lower water potential.
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
127. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles

(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner
along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (a), (b) and (d) only
(b) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(c) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(d) (a), (c),(d) and (e) only
(e) All the options are correct.

Statement I: In dicot stem, endodermis is also called as starch sheath.
Statement II: The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch grains.
129. What do A, B, C and D represent in the following figure?
(a) A : carrier protein, B: symport, C: uniport, D : antiport

(b) A : carrier protein, B : uniport, C: antiport, D : symport
(c) A : carrier protein, B : antiport, C: symport, D : uniport
(d) A : carrier protein, B : uniport, C: symport, D : antiport
130. A cell with a fully elastic wall is placed in a hypertonic solution. Which of the following will not
happen?
(a) Changes in cell size and shape
(b) The whole cell will shrink
(c) Cytoplasm shrinks from the cell wall and undergoes plasmolysis
(d) Decrease in cell size
131. It takes a very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(a) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(b) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
(d) Auxin and Ethylene
132. Pick out the correct statements.

(A) Cytokinins specially help in delaying senescence
(B) Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance
(C) Ethylene is especially useful in enhancing seed germination
(D) Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves.
(a) A and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only
133. Assertion: Floral initiation is done by hormonal substance.
Reason: Hormonal substance is translocated from flowers to leaves.
(a)
Assertion.
(b)
Assertion.
134. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(a) Speed up the malting process
(b) Promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface
(c) Help overcome apical dominance
(d) Kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
135. Consider the following statements about Deuteromycetes:

I. Some members are saprophytes or parasites
II. A large number of members are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling
III. Colletotrichum, Aspergillus, Alternaria, and Trichoderma are examples of Deuteromycetes
Which of the above are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
136. Read the following pair:

(A) Diatoms-Chief producer in Ocean
(B) Dinoflagellates- Golden algae
(C) Slime mould-Spores have true wall
(D) Euglenoids-Cellulosic cell wall
(E) Protozoans-Unicellular eukaryotes
Choose the correct pair.
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, D, E
(c) A, C, E
(d) A, B, E
137. What is true for both (a) and (b)?
(a) (b)
(a) RNA is the genetic material

(b) Capability to infect bacteria
(c) Being obligate endoparasites
(d) DNA is the genetic material
138. Match Colum-I with Column-II and select the CORRECT option using the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II
a) Pistils fused together i) Gametogenesis
b) Formation of gametes ii) Pistillate
c) Calyx iii) Syncarpous
d) Unisexual female flower iv) Gamosepalous
(a) a) - ii), b) - i), c) - iv), d) - iii)

(b) a) - i), b) - ii), c) - iv), d) - iii)
(c) a) - iii), b) - i), c) - iv), d) - ii)
(d) a) - iv), b) - iii), c) - i), d) - ii)
139. In the given figure of maize grain, certain regions are labeled as A, B, C and D. Match them
with the codes (1, 2, 3 and 4) given below and select the correct option.
1. The main nutritive tissue
2. Shield shaped cotyledon
3. Protection sheath of the radicle
4. The proteinaceous layer
(a) A-(1), B-(3), C-(4), D-(2)

(b) A-(2), B-(3), C-(1), D-(4)
(c) A-(1), B-(2), C-(3), D-(4)
(d) A-(4), B-(2), C-(3), D-(1)
140. Assertion: The outermost covering of a dicotyledonous seed is the seed coat.
Reason: The seed coat has two layers-outer testa and inner hilum.
(a)
Assertion.
(b)
Assertion.

Statement I: When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane
passing through the center, it is said to be zygomorphic.
Statement II: A flower is asymmetric if it cannot be divided into two similar halves by any
vertical plane passing through the center.
142. A cell, which is very active in the synthesis and secretion of proteins, would be expected to
have
(a) Equal amount of RER and SER
(b) More SER than RER
(c) More RER than SER
(d) More Golgi bodies and no ER
143. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Prokaryotes are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells
Glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called slime layer in some, while in others it is called
(b)
the capsule
(c) The chloroplasts are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Chromatophores are the membranous extension into the cytoplasm of cyanobacteria
(d)
which contains pigments
144. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their
size and select the correct option.
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBCs
(iv) Bacteria
(a) (i) → (iv) → (iii) → (ii)
(b) (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (ii)
(c) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(d) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)
145. Which of the following options correctly identifies the plant shown in figure and the group it
belongs to?
(a) Selaginella - Pteridophyte

(b) Sphagnum - Moss
(c) Sphagnum - Liverwort
(d) Funaria - Moss
146. Select the incorrect statement out of the following.
(a) All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the kingdom Animalia.
As we go higher from species to kingdom, number of common characteristics goes on
(b)
increasing.
Different classes comprising fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals together
(c)
constitute the phylum Chordata.
Plant order Polymoniales includes the families like Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae
(d)
based on the vegetative and floral characters.
147. Match the following columns and select the correct option
(a) A-ii, B-v, C-i, D-iii, E-iv

(b) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii, E-ii
(c) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-i, E-iv
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii, E-iii
148. Given figure is of filamentous blue green alga Nostoc. Identify the parts marked as A and B
and select the correct option
(a) A-Heterocyst ; B-Mucilaginous sheath

(b) A-Vegetative cell ; B-Mucilaginous sheath
(c) A-Trichomes ; B-Cell wall
(d) A-Mucilaginous sheath ; B-Heterocyst
149. Identify the different types of placentations shown in the figure and select the correct
option.
(a) A → Marginal ; B → Basal ; C → Parietal ; D →Free central ; E → Axile

(b) A → Marginal; B → Basal; C → Axile; D → Free central; E → Parietal
(c) A → Parietal; B → Axile; C → Marginal; D →Basal; E → Free central
(d) A → Marginal; B → Parietal; C → Axile; D → Basal; E → Free central
150. Given below are four statements (i-iv) regarding reproductive organs (androecium and
gynoecium) of the flower.
(i) Each stamen that represents the male reproductive organ consists of a stalk or a filament
and an anther.
(ii) When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in lily.
(iii) Gynoecium is the female reproductive part of the flower and is made up of one or more
carpels.
(iv)The ovary is the enlarged basal part. The style is usually at the tip of the stigma and is the
receptive surface for pollen grains.
From the above-given statements choose the option with the only incorrect statement(s).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
151. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(a) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(b) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(d) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
152. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
Column I Column II
a Tidal Volume (i) 2500-3000 mL
b Inspiratory Reserve volume (ii) 1100-1200 mL
c Expiratory Reserve volume (iii) 500-550 mL
d Residual Volume (iv) 1000-1100 mL
(a) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (iv); d → (ii)

(b) a → (i); b → (iv); c → (ii); d → (iii)
(c) a → (iii); b → (ii); c → (i); d → (iv)
(d) a → (iv); b → (iii); c → (ii); d → (i)
153. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into
lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
154. Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

(a) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(b) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(c) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(d) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
155. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site
of diffusion) are:
(a) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(b) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(c) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(d) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
156. Consider the following four statements and select the correct option stating which ones are
true (T) and which ones are false (F).
(i) The stomach has the lowest pH.
(ii) The liver contains lipid emulsifiers.
(iii) Large intestine secretes many enzymes.
(iv) All proteases function in the lumen of the small intestine.
(a) (i) → T; (ii) → F; (iii) → T; (iv) → F
(b) (i) → F; (ii) → T; (iii) → F; (iv) → T
(c) (i) → F; (ii) → F; (iii) → T; (iv) → T
(d) (i) → T; (ii) → T; (iii) → F; (iv) → F
157. A list of events occurring in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse is given
below in a random order.
(i) Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is
generated in the postsynaptic neuron.
(ii) Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on postsynaptic membrane
(iii) Synaptic vesicle fuses with presynaptic membrane, neurotransmitter release into
synaptic cleft.
(iv) Depolarization of presynaptic membranes.
(v) Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
Which of the following options represents these events in the correct order?
(a) (v) → (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(b) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) → (v)
(c) (i) → (ii) → (iv) → (iii) → (v)
(d) (v) → (iv) → (iii) → (i) → (ii)
158. The given figure shows the structure of a neuron. Select the option that correctly identifies
the parts labelled A to E.
(a) A→ Nerve fibre; B→ Cyton; C→ Schwann cell; D→ Node of Ranvier; E→ Synaptic knob
(b) A→ Dendrites; B→ Cyton; C→ Schwann cell; D→ Node of Ranvier; E→ Synaptic knob
(c) A→ Dendrites; B→ Nerve cell; C→ Schwann cell; D→ Synaptic knob; E→ Node of Ranvier
(d) A→ Axon; B→ Cyton; C→ Nerve cell; D→ Node of Ranvier; E→ Synaptic knob
159. A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature,
loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in:
(a) Pons
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Hypothalamus
160. Column I list the parts of the human brain and column II lists the functions. Match the two
columns and identify the correct choice from those given:
Column I Column II
A Cerebrum p Controls the pituitary
B Outer cranial meninges q Controls gastric secretions
C Hypothalamus r Pia mater
D Medulla s Seat of intelligence
t Dura mater
(a) A=t, B=s, C=q, D=p

(b) A=s, B=t, C=q, D=p
(c) A=t, B=s, C=p, D=q
(d) A=s, B=t, C=p, D=q
161. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric changes?
(a) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
(b) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive
(c) First positive, then negative and again back to positive
(d) First negative, then positive and again back to negative
162. Given ahead is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands, and one
major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks
A, B, and C.
(a) A-Placenta, B-Insulin, C-Vasopressin

(b) A-Ovary, B-Insulin, C-Calcitonin
(c) A-Placenta, B-Glucagon, C-Calcitonin
(d) A-Ovary, B-Glucagon, C-Growth hormone
163. Given below are four statements (A – D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option
which correctly fills up the blanks in any two statements.
(A) Thymus secretes (i) which help in differentiation of (ii) .
(B) The adrenal medulla secretes (i) which stimulates the breakdown of (ii) to increase the
blood glucose concentration during emergency situations.
(C) The Leydig’s cells or (i) present in the intertubular spaces in testis, produce a group of
hormones called (ii) .
(D) Thyroid gland secretes (i) and triiodothyronine which contain (ii) .
(a) (A) – (i) melatonin, (ii) T-lymphocytes; (B) – (i) adrenaline, (ii) fat
(b) (B) – (i) catecholamine, (ii) glycogen; (C) – (i) interstitial cells, (ii) LH
(c) (B) – (i) Catecholamine, (ii) glycogen; (D) – (i) Thyroxine, (ii) iodine
(d) (D) – (i) Parathyroid hormone, (ii) calcium; (A) – (i) Thymosin, (ii) B-lymphocytes
164. Assertion: The hormones produced by the hypothalamus originating in the hypothalamic
neurons, pass through axons and are released from their nerve endings.
Reason: These hormones reach the pituitary gland through a portal circulatory system and
regulate the functions of the posterior pituitary.
(a)
Assertion.
(b)
Assertion.
165. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
(a) Contraction of both the atria

(b) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(c) Beginning of the systole
(d) End of systole
166. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option
given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
(b) Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
(c) Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle
(a) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (ii)

(b) a → (i); b → (ii); c → (iii)
(c) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (ii)
(d) a → (ii); b → (i); c → (iii)
167. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is
Characteristics - Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements, Examples - Knee
(a)
joints
(b) Characteristics - Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion, Examples - Skull bones
Characteristics - Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones, Examples - Joint between
(c)
atlas and axis
Characteristics - Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement, Examples - Gliding
(d)
joint between carpals
168. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased
chances of fracture.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of oestrogen.
given b
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Statement I: The coagulum is formed of a network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
given below:
170. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

(a) Ornithorhynchus
(b) Salamandra
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Pavo
171. Assertion: The filtration of blood through kidneys is called ultrafiltration.

Reason: Blood is filtered very finely through the three membranes of the glomerular
filtration barrier.
(a)
Assertion.
(b)
Assertion.
Statement I: The walls of atria are much thicker than that of the ventricles.
Statement II: The left atrium receives impure blood from a system of venules, veins and
vena cava.
Select the correct option.
173. In a cardiac output of 5250 ml per minute, with 75 heartbeats per minute, the stroke volume
is
(a) 60 ml
(b) 80 ml
(c) 55 ml
(d) 70 ml
174. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Glucose does not pass into the urine in normal conditions.
(ii) Henle's loop allows formation of concentrated urine.
(iii) Haemodialyser removes urea, uric acid, glucose, and plasma proteins.
(iv) In the glomerulus, urea, uric acid, water, glucose, and plasma proteins are filtered out.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
175. Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the right option
(A) The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to
another substrate
(B) The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical
bonds of the substrate
(C) The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly
around the substrate
(D) The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, A, D, C
176. Match List -I with LIst – II
List I List II
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (ii), (d)-(iii)

(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (iii), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)- (i), (d)-(iv)
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)- (iii), (d)-(i)
177. Assertion: During mitotic prophase, chromosomal material condenses to form compact
mitotic chromosomes.
Reason: In mitotic prophase, chromosomes are seen to be composed of two chromatids
attached together at the centromere.
(a)
Assertion.
(b)
Assertion.
178. Consider the following four statements (I-IV) related to cell cycle, and select the correct
option stating them as true [T] and false [F].
I. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division.
III. The number of chromosomes doubles in S-phase
IV. The cells that do not divide further exit G1-phase to enter an inactive stage.
(a) I –T, II - F, III- F, IV- F
(b) I –F, II – T, III – T, IV - T
(c) I –F, II – F, III- T, IV - T
(d) I –T, II – F, III – F, IV - T
179. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for
glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?
(a) C12H20O10
(b) C12H24O12
(c) C12H22O11
(d) C12H24O11
180. Examine the figures of diploblastic (i) and triploblastic (ii) organization in animals given
below and identify the labeled parts A to D.
(a) A-Mesoglea, B-Ectoderm, C-Endoderm, D-Mesoderm

(b) A-Endoderm, B-Mesoderm, C-Mesoglea, D-Ectoderm
(c) A-Mesoderm, B-Mesoglea, C-Ectoderm, D-Endoderm
(d) A-Ectoderm, B-Endoderm, C-Mesoglea, D-Mesoderm
181. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching
(a) a-sexually, b-asexually

(b) a-asexually, b-sexually
(c) a-asexually, b-parthenogenetically
(d) a-sexually, b-parthenogenetically
182. This question that follows has two statements (Assertion and Reason). Statement II (R) is
supposed to be the explanation for statement I (A). Study both the statements carefully and
then mark your answers, according to the codes given below.
Assertion: Sponges exhibit cellular level of organization.
Reason: In sponges, cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
183. Recognise the part and find out the correct matching.
(a) a-labium, b-labrum, c-maxilla, d-mandible,

(b) a-labrum, b-labium, c-mandible, d-maxilla
(c) a-mandible, b-maxilla, c-labium, d-labrum
(d) a-maxilla, b-mandible, c-labrum, d-labium
184. Microvilli, which function to increase surface area, belong to which of the following types of
tissues?
(a) Compound cuboidal
(b) Simple squamous
(c) Transitional
(d) Simple columnar
185. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:
Column-I Column-II
A Pila (i) Flame cells
B Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
C Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
D Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
(a) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)

(b) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)
(c) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(d) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv)
186. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding neural tissues?
(a) It exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness
(b) Chondrocytes, the unit of neural system are excitable cells
(c) Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons
(d) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated
187. The given flow chart showed the fate of carbohydrates’ during digestion in the human
alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D and select
the correct option.
(a) A – amylase; B – maltase; C – lactase; D – invertase

(b) A – amylase; B – maltase; C – invertase; D – lactase
(c) A – amylase; B – invertase; C – maltase; D – lactase
(d) A – amylase; B – lactase; C – maltase; D – invertase
188. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of the human respiratory system with labels A, B, C
and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/ or
characteristic.
A – trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired

(a)
air
(b) B – pleural membrane – surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(c) C – Alveoli – thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
(d) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
189. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(i) Contraction of diaphragm
(ii) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(iii) Pulmonary volume decreases
(iv) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) Only (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
190. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
191. The hormone released by "X" marked in the given figure helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.
(a) X-Thyroxine Y-Too much calcium in the blood

(b) X-PTH Y-Lowered levels of calcium in blood.
(c) X-Thymosin Y-Decreased level of blood sugar.
(d) X-Adrenaline Y-Excessive loss of sodium in extracellular fluid.
192. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood by
i. Bone resorption/dissolution/demineralization
ii. Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
iii. Increasing Ca2+ absorption from the digested food
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
193. Match the items given in column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below.
Column 1 (Function) Column II (Part of Excretory system)

(a) Ultrafiltration (i) Henle’s loop
(b) Concentration of urine (ii) Ureter
(c) Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
(d) Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian corpuscle
(v) Proximal convoluted tubule
(a) a → (iv); b → (i); c → (ii); d → (iii)

(b) a → (v); b → (iv); c → (i); d → (ii)
(c) a → (iv); b → (v); c → (ii); d → (iii)
(d) a → (v); b → (iv); c → (i); d → (iii)
194. During the muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(a) ‘H’ zone disappears
(b) ‘A’ band widens
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(b) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(c) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(d) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
195. Statement I: Mitotic divisions in the meristematic tissues result in a continuous growth of
plants throughout their life.
Statement II: Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the
cytoplasm.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
196. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.
(a) a-serine, b-glycine, c-alanine

(b) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine
(c) a-glycine, b-alanine, c-serine
(d) a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine
197. Following is the graph related to enzyme activity:
Choose the correct option:

(a) A = pH, B = Enzyme activity, C = Km constant, D = Vmax
(b) A = Velocity of reaction, B = pH, C = Vmax./2, D = Concentration of substrate
(c) A = Concentration of substrate, B = Vmax./2, C = Km constant, D = Velocity of reaction
(d) A = Concentration of substrate, B = Vmax./2, C = Km constant, D = Vi
198. Consider the following statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks.
(A) Four characters of chordates are the presence of (i) __ , dorsal hollow nervous system, (ii)
__ and post anal tail.
(B) Agnatha are commonly called (iii) __ vertebrates.
(C) Electric ray belongs to class (iv) __ while sea horse belongs to class (v) __.
(D) The characteristic features of (vi) __ are the presence of feathers.These have a (vii) __
gland at the base of the tail.
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank
numbers from (i) to (vii) in the statements?
(a) (iii) → jawless; (iv) → osteichthyes; (v) → chondrichthyes
(b) (i) → notochord; (ii) → pharyngeal gill slits; (iv) → chondrichthyes; (v) → osteichthyes
(c) (iii) → jawed; (vi) → Reptiles; (vii) → oil
(d) (i) → four-chambered heart; (ii) → pharyngeal gill slits; (vi) → Birds; (vii) → phallomere
199. On which segments of an Earthworm are nephridiopores absent?

(a) First, last, clitellar
(b) First, fourth, sixth
(c) First, last, 17th-20th segments
(d) 2nd-4th segments and the last segment
200. Below are some statements about Rana tigrina:
(i) Mucus is present on the surface of the skin
(ii) They never drink water
(iii) Body is divided into head, neck and trunk
(iv) Forelimbs are bigger than hind limbs
(v) Dorsal side of the body is olive green and the ventral side is pale yellow.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) i, iii, iv, v
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, v
(d) i, v
Answer Key
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D
7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. B
19. A 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. A
25. C 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. A
37. C 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. A 42. B
43. B 44. A 45. C 46. C 47. D 48. A
49. D 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. D 54. A
55. B 56. B 57. B 58. A 59. C 60. B
61. B 62. A 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. B
67. C 68. C 69. A 70. C 71. D 72. C
73. A 74. A 75. B 76. C 77. B 78. A
79. B 80. D 81. A 82. A 83. C 84. D
85. C 86. B 87. C 88. C 89. D 90. B
91. B 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. C
97. A 98. C 99. A 100. D 101. B 102. C
103. B 104. A 105. C 106. B 107. C 108. D
109. C 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. D
115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. A
121. B 122. B 123. D 124. D 125. A 126. D
127. E 128. A 129. B 130. C 131. D 132. D
133. C 134. B 135. A 136. C 137. C 138. C
139. D 140. C 141. D 142. C 143. C 144. A
145. B 146. B 147. B 148. A 149. B 150. D
151. A 152. A 153. A 154. A 155. C 156. D
157. A 158. B 159. D 160. D 161. D 162. D
163. C 164. C 165. A 166. C 167. C 168. C
169. D 170. D 171. A 172. B 173. D 174. C
175. A 176. A 177. A 178. D 179. C 180. D
181. B 182. A 183. C 184. D 185. A 186. B
187. D 188. C 189. C 190. A 191. B 192. D
193. A 194. C 195. A 196. C 197. C 198. B
199. A 200. C
Solutions
1. (C)
If l=2 so ‘ml’ should be -2,-1, 0, +1,+2
ml value should not exceed l value. So, n=3, l =2, ml =-3, ms= 1/2 is an impossible arrangement.
2. (D)
z
For isoelectronic species higher the e ratio, smaller the ionic radius
z 8
e
for O2- = 10 = 0.8
9
F– = 10 = 0.9
11
Na+ = 10 = 1.1
12
Mg2+ = 10 = 1.2
13
Al3+ = 10 = 1.3
3. (A)
The relative extent to which the various orbitals penetrate the electron clouds of other orbitals is
s > p > d > f. Thus, the order of screening effect in a given shell is s > p > d > f.
4. (D)
Hydration energy is inversely proportional to the size of ion.
Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ Size
Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ Hydration energy
5. (C)
Carbon family elements show +2 and +4 oxidation numbers. But down the group +4 O.S. stability
decrease and +2 O.S. stability increases due to inert pair effect exist in lead.
That is why lead is stable in +2 O.S. as compare to +4 O.S and tin is stable in +4 O.S rather than +2
O.S.
Hence, Pb is more stable in Pb+2 and Sn in Sn+4
So Pb4+ tend to gain electrons and come to +2 O.S behave as an oxidising agent while Sn+2 tend to
loose electrons and come to +4 O.S and behave like a reducing agent.
6. (D)
Carbon doesn't have d-orbitals. It cannot form hexahalo complexes. But Sn, Ge and Si have d-
orbitals in them. They can form hexahalo complexes, and can act as Lewis acids
7. (B)
8. (B)
More + R effect shown in option (b) stabilize carbocation.
9. (A)
In electrophilic substitution reaction an electrophile (in this case NO2+ ) replaces another atom (in
this case H) from the substrate (benzene).
10. (B)
For combustion, ∆H = –ve, as np > nr
∆S = +ve, for spontaneity ∆G = –ve

11. (D)
Molecular formula is C4H8. The degree of unsaturation = 1.
Hydrocarbons with molecular formula C4H8 represent alkenes and cycloalkanes.
Alkanes:
Cycloalkanes:
Number of possible isomer with molecular formula C4H8 = 6
12. (A)
13. (A)
1 1
O 2is paramagnetic, O 2 : π ∗ 2p x = π ∗ 2p y
14. (A)
The balanced chemical reaction is:
2MnO4– + 5SO32– + 6H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5SO42– + 3H2O
5 moles SO32– reacts with 2 moles of KMnO4
2
1 mole of SO32– will react with 5 mole KMnO4
15. (C)
Si-F bond is stronger than C-F bond because of double bond character due to back bonding from F
to Si
16. (B)
Due to poor shielding of d-orbital in Ga, atomic radius of Ga is smaller than that of Al. Thus, Ga < Al
< ln < Tl.
17. (C)
Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic
functions of their atomic numbers.
18. (B)
0.5 × 50
nHCl = = 0.025 mole
1000
WHCl = 0.025 × 36.5 = 0.9125 g
M. MCaCO = 100 g/mol
3
2 × 36.5 g HCl requires CaCO3 = 100 g
100
0.9125 g HCl requires CaCO3 = 2 × 36.5 × 0.9125 = 1.25 g
1.25 × 100
Mass of 95% pure CaCO3 = 95
= 1.32 g
19. (A)
n2 r1 n 21 Z2
r∝ Z ⇒ r = 2 ×Z
2 n2 1
105.8 4 3
⇒ = 9×2
Li + 2
3 × 105.8
r Li + 2 = 2
= 158.7 pm
20. (A)
IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is ununennium
21. (D)
e 0
m
for (i) neutron = m = 0
2 0.5
(ii) α − particle = 4m = m
p p
1 1
(iii) Proton = m = m
p p
1 1837
(iv) electron = m / 1837 = m
p p
22. (A)
Ba(OH) 2 > Sr(OH) 2 > Ca(OH) 2 > Mg(OH) 2
23. (A)
Terminal alkynes give a white precipitate easily on reaction with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.
24. (A)
Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
Toluene has −CH3 group attached to benzene. −CH3 group activates the benzene ring for the
attack of an electrophile. In resonating structure of toluene, electronic density is more on ortho
and para position.
Hence, substitution takes place mainly at these positions.
25. (C)
At constant temperature,
√ √
1 1
rate of diffusion ∝ d
or M
and ∝ P
Hence rA / rB = (PA / PB)(MB / MA)1/2.

26. (A)
ΔH = ΔE + ΔnRT
ΔH − ΔE = ΔnRT
ΔnRT = − 3 × 8.314 × 10 − 3 × 298 = –7.43KJ
27. (B)
[Cu(H2O)4]SO4H2O
28. (D)
With decrease in size from Al to S the basic nature of oxide decrease and acidic nature increases.
Al 2O 3 < SiO 2 < P 2O 3 < SO 2
Al 2O 3 is amphoteric, SiO 2 is slightly acidic whereas P 2O 3 and SO 2 are the anhydrides of acids H 3PO 3
and H 2SO 3.
29. (C)
n
Mole fraction of solute = N + n
n = number of moles of solute
N = number of moles of solvent
where solute is methyl alcohol, solvent is water.
1000
Given n = 5.2, N = 18 = 55.55
5.2
∴ Mole fraction = = 0.085
5.2 + 55.55
30. (B)
H 2(g) + l 2(g) → 2Hl(g)
ΔH = ∑ B. E r − ∑ B. E p = 80 + 100 − 2 × 200 = − 220 kJ/ mol
31. (D)
HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
markovnikov addition of HBr.
32. (C)
(i) O 3
CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3 → CH 3 − C −C − CH 3
(ii) Zn / H 2O || ||
O O
33. (A)
( )
HNO 2 is a weak acid and NaNO 2 is a salt of weak acid HNO 2 with strong base (NaOH)
34. (A)
The balanced redox reaction is
2MnO4− + 5C 2O24 − + 16H + → 2Mn 2 + + 10CO2 + 8H 2O
Hence, the coefficient of reactants in the balanced reaction are 2, 5 and 16 respectively
35. (B)
Le chatelier principle is not applicable to solid-solid equilibrium.
36. (A)
Due to unequal sizes of empty 2p-orbital of B and filled 5p-orbital on I, pπ- pπ back donation does
not occur to any significant extent. As a result, electron deficiency of B is not compensated and
hence BI3 is the strongest Lewis acid.
37. (C)
Only bicarbonates cause temporary hardness, whereas chlorides and sulphates of calcium and
magnesium ions cause permanent hardness .
38. (A)
Number of atoms = Number of moles x Avogadro's number (NA)
24
Number of atoms in 24 g C = 12 x NA = 2NA
56
Number of atoms in 56 g of Fe = NA = NA
56
27
Number of atoms in 27 g of Al = NA = NA
27
108
Number of atoms in 108 g of Ag = 108 NA = NA
Hence, 24 g of carbon has the maximum number of atoms
39. (A)
2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g); ∆H = –ve
By the addition of inert gas at constant pressure, volume increases, so reaction moving in
backward direction and decomposition of N2O4 increases
40. (D)
PAN is produced by photochemical smog.
41. (A)
O-nitro phenol has an intramolecular hydrogen bond due to this its b.p. is less so it is more volatile
than p-nitro phenol which has an intermolecular hydrogen bond
42. (B)
SO2 oxidised H2S to S.
43. (B)
Option (b), represents maximum work done
44. (A)
The given salt is a salt of weak acid + weak base.
pH = 0.5 [pKw + pKa – pKb]
pH = 0.5 [14 + 4.77 – 3.27]
pH = 0.5 [15.5]
pH = 7.75
45. (C)
PM = dRT
Mαd
MX dX
=
MY dY
4 2x
= ; MY = 2g / mol
MY x
46. (C)
ΔE = E 3 − E 2 = 13.6
( 2) 2[−
1
( 3) 2
1
] = 1.9 eV
47. (D)
1 E1 λ2 400
Energy of a photon ∝ λ ; Thus, E = λ = 200 = 2
2 1
48. (A)
( )
p+
a
V2
a
V = RT
PV + V = RT
PV a RT
RT
+ RTV = RT
a PV
Z = 1 − RTV ∵ Z = RT
49. (D)
Due to small size of ions, high electronegativity values and high sum of the three ionization
energies, the elements of group 13 mainly form covalent compounds.
50. (A)
The molality of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1.0 kg (1000 g) of
solvent.
51. (B)
Displacement when there is non-zero acceleration or retardation is the area of the shaded
Portion.
1
s = 2 × 20 × 3 + 20 × 1 = 50m
52. (A)
Friction opposes the relative motion between two objects in contact.
53. (D)
The range will be same for complementary angles for the same speed of projection. If one angle of
π π
projection is 3 ,then the other angle of projection (for the same range) is 6 . Let the corresponding
maximum heights be H1 and H2 respectively. Then;
4H 1 = Rtan(π / 3)
4H 2 = Rtan(π / 6)
H1 tan ( π / 3 ) (
H × 1 / √3 ) H
H2
= tan ( π / 6 ) ⇒ H 2 = = 3
√3
54. (A)
Length of the string = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Maximum value of tension = 10 N
Mass of stone = 250 g = 0.25 kg
Let the maximum angular velocity be ω
Tension provides the centripetal force to the stone
T = mrω 2
T
⇒ = ω2
mr
10
⇒ = ω2
0.25 × 0.1
10000
⇒ = ω2
25
⇒ 400 = ω 2
⇒ ω = 20 rad/ s
55. (B)
Let the velocity of the pendulum at the mean position i.e. O be v and tension be T using work-
energy theorem from A to O: W g = ΔK. E
1
mgl = 2 mv2 ⇒ mv2 = 2mgl …(1)
mv 2
Circular motion equation at point O: l
= T − mg
2mgl
From (1) we get l
= T − mg
∴ 2mg = T − mg ⇒ T = 3 mg
56. (B)
When body starts to fall towards the earth’s surface its potential energy decreases and kinetic
energy increases.
Increase in kinetic energy = Decrease in potential energy
Final kinetic energy – Initial kinetic energy = Initial potential energy – Final potential energy
− GMm
Final KE - 0 = R + 2R −
− GMm
( )
GMm
− GMm
R+R
GMm 1 GMm
Final KE = 3R
+ 2R = 6R = 6 R
57. (B)
At the point of contact the frictional force acts tangentially and the weight of the sphere pass
through it perpendicularly and there is no other force acting on the sphere. So, as the all forces
passing through the point of contact, the moment of all forces acting on the body about point of
contact is zero. Hence there is no torque about point of contact which means angular momentum
about point of contact must be conserved.
58. (A)
Acceleration due to gravity g = GM/R2 …(1)
The radius is constant, volume also constant.
If volume is constant, density is proportional to mass (v = m / ρ)
The density is doubled, the mass is also doubled. (M’ = 2M)
Put the value M’ = 2M and R’ = R
g ′ = G(2M) / R 2
g ′ = 2GM/ R 2 …(2)
Substituting equations (1) and (2), we get
g ′ = 2g
g = 9.8 m / s 2
g ′ = 2 × 9.8 = 19.6 m / s 2
59. (C)
Since liquid is incompressible there is no change in volume.
When strain is small the ratio of the normal stress to the volume strain is called the bulk modulus
of material of the body.
normal stress
B = volume strain
Since, the liquid is incompressible change in volume is zero.
Ideally, bulk modulus should be infinity.
60. (B)
→ →
P = F. v = Fvcosθ
= 20 × 5 × cos60 o = 50 W
61. (B)
βt should be dimensionless. Therefore, [β] = T − 1 = M0L 0T − 1
[α]
Now; [v] = [ β ] ⇒ [α] = [v][β] = M0LT − 1 × T − 1 = M0LT − 2
62. (A)
For 3 kg mass: 3g – T1 = 3a
For 5 kg mass: T1 – T2 = 5a
For 2 kg mass: T2 – 2g = 2a
Adding, g = 10a
a = 1 m/s2
63. (A)
If r is the radius of a small droplet and R is the radius of a big drop, then according to question
4 4
3
πR 3 = 10 6 × 3 πr3
So, r = 0.01 R = 10 − 4 m
Now, work done = S. ΔA
[
= 35 × 10 − 2 10 6 × 4π × 10 − 4 ( ) 2
(
− 4π × 10 − 2 )]
2
= 4.35 × 10 − 2J
64. (C)
In 1s, man has walked, 4 m / s × 1 s = 4 m, with respect to the trolley.
As position of the COM stays same, let the distance moved by trolley be x in direction opposite to
that of the man.
So net displacement of man is (4 - x)m
Thus, Mman × (4 − x) = Mtrolley x
⇒ 80(4 − x) = 320x ⇒ x = 320 / 400 = 0.8 m
So net displacement of man in 1s is, 4 – 0.8 = 3.2 m
65. (A)
According to the law of floatation
Weight of the block = weight of the two liquids displaced
L 3L
LADg = A(2d)g + Adg
4 4
1 3 5
⇒ D = d+ d= d
2 4 4
66. (B)
Since vertical capillary rise will be same hence,
h = lcos60 ∘
l = 2h = 2 × 3 cm = 6 cm
67. (C)
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble,
4T
Δp =
r
1
i.e., Δp ∝
r
Δp 1 r2 3
Δp 2
= r = 1
1
V1
Hence, V = r
2 2 () r1 3
= 3
()
1 3 1
= 27
68. (C)
Using Wein’s law :λ peakT = c
So, 11 × 10 − 5T 1 = 5.5 × 10 − 5T 2
T1 1
So, T = 2
2
69. (A)
Given: T 1 = 0 ∘ C = 273K
Given: T 2 = 273 ∘ C = 546K
( )
E1 T41 273 4 1
E2
= 4 = 546 = 16
T2
⇒ E 2 = 16E 1
⇒ E 2 = 16E
70. (C)
Work done is equal to area under the curve.
( )
W = 1 × 10 5(5 − 1) + 5 × 10 5 − 1 × 10 5 (5 − 1) / 2
W = 12 × 10 5J
71. (D)
For all processes, (between two states) change in internal energy ΔU=(ΔQ−ΔW) does not change. It
depends only on initial and final states.
72. (C)
From the relation,
¯ 3
KE = 2 kT
( )
¯
KE 1
T1
⇒ = T (because k is constant)
( )
2
¯
KE 2
Given, T 1 = 300K, T 2 = 350K

( KE ) 1 300 6
∴ ( KE ) = 350 = 7 .
2
73. (A)
Here, x = 5√2(sin2πt + cos2πt)
⇒ x = 5√2sin2πt + 5√2cos2πt … (i)
A=
√A
2
1 + A 22 = √ (5√2) 2 + (5√2 )2
= √50 + 50
= 10 cm
74. (A)
For a displacement A/2 with respect to mean position (for the first instant):
A
2
= Asin(ωt)
π 2π π
⇒ ωt = ⇒ t=
6 T 6
T
⇒ t = 12
While moving from x = -A/2 to x = 0, also, the same time is taken.
Then from x = 0 to x = A, time taken is T/4
T T T
Total time = 12 + 4 = 3
75. (B)
Here, ρ = 7.5 × 10 3kg / m 3,
Stress = 3.0 × 10 8N/ m 2
If A is area of cross section of the wire, then tension in wire,
T = stress × area = 3.0 × 10 8AN
Mass per unit length of wire,
m = A × 1 × ρ = A × 7.5 × 10 3kg / m
√
3.0 × 108A
√
T
v= m
=
A × 7.5 × 103
= √4 × 104 = 200 m / s
76. (C)
As the open end always has an antinode, only odd harmonics are possible.
Fundamental frequency is v/4L.
77. (B)
Using the continuity equation we have Av = constant. Thus A is correct.
Using the Bernoulli’s equation we have
P 1 v12 P 2 v22
+ = +
ρ 2 ρ 2
( )
ρ
P1 − P2 = v 2 − v12
2 2
But
P 1 − P 2 = ρgh (from the difference in the heights in the column).
Thus we have
ρ
(
ρgh = 2 v2 2 − v2 2 )
or v2 2 − v1 2 = 2gh. Thus C is right.
There is not change in the energy during the flow, thus D is also correct.
78. (A)
Height of the blood column in the human body is more at feet than at the brain. As P = hρg,
therefore, the blood exerts more pressure at the feet than at the brain.
79. (B)
a = Kt 2
t3
v = ∫ Kt 2dt = K +c
3
At t = 0, v = 0 and so, c = 0
33
Now: vt = 3 = K 3 = 9K
80. (D)
Speed upstream = 10 – 5 = 5 km/h
Speed downstream = 10+ 5 = 15 km/h
30 30
Time taken for the up and down journey: t = 5 + 15 = 8 hr
81. (A)
( )
m1 − m2
1 2 1
2m 2u 2
v1 = m + m u 1 + m + m
2
Substituting m 1 = 0, v1 = − u 1 + 2u 2
⇒ v1 = − 6 + 2(4) = 2 m / s
i.e. the lighter particle will move in original direction with the speed of 2 m/s
82. (A)
Temprature difference ΔT ΔT
Thermal Resistance = Thermal current
= rate of flow of heat = ΔQ
Δt
⇒ [Thermal Resistance] =
[K]
[
= M − 1L − 2T 3K ]
[ ML T ]
2 −3
83. (C)
The standard equation for a wave propagating along positive x-direction and having vibrations
parallel to y-axis, is y = Asin(ωt − kx)
Here, x = 1.2 sin(2t + 3.14y)
The second term in bracket shows that k = 3.14 and the wave is propagating in negative y direction.
2π 2π 2 × 3.14
Now, k = λ ⇒ λ = k = 3.14
= 2m
84. (D)
Whenever a wave travels through a material medium, the particles of the medium start vibrating
about their mean positions.
Every vibrating particle transfers its vibration to its immediate next particle.
In any vibration there exists mechanical energy (kinetic and potential energies). As the vibration
gets transferred, the energy also gets transferred.
Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity. Since the particles have mass and they
are in motion, they have momentum. So obviously when vibration is transferred, momentum is
also transferred.
In any wave motion, the vibration travels in the forward direction, but no particles actually gets
transferred. Hence mass doesn't get transferred.
85. (C)
Tension: T1 = (1 + 2 + 3 )10 = 60N
Tension: T2 = (2 + 3) 10 = 50 N
Tension: T3 = 3 x 10 = 30 N
Clearly, T1 is the maximum tension.
86. (B)
1 1
W = ΔU = 2 k(x 22 − x 21) = 2 × 800 × (15 2 − 5 2) × 10 − 4 = 8 J
87. (C)
This is the case of uniform circular motion. Here, the velocity of the object keeps on changing in
direction, but its magnitude remains the same.
88. (C)
The perpendicular distance of point O from the sides AB or BC or AC will be same (say r). Torque
will be zero if total moment of force about point O is zero. Hence
rF 1 + rF 2 − rF 3 = 0
F 3 = F 1 + F 2 = (4 + 2)N = 6 N
89. (D)
Kinetic energy of sphere is given by:
1
E sphere = Isphereω 2sphere
2
1 2
E sphere = × mR 2 × ω 2sphere
2 5
Kinetic energy of cylinder is given by:
1
E cylinder = Icylinderω 2cylinder
2
1 1
E cylinder = × mR 2 × ω 2cylinder
2 2
Given, ω cylinder = 2ω sphere
E sphere 1
E cylinder
= 5
90. (B)
|P | = p; |Q | = q;
→ → → → → → →
R = P + Q; R⊥P
p 1
It is clear that sinθ = 2p = 2 ⇒ θ = 30 o
→ →
As clear from diagram, total angle between Pand Q is 120o
91. (B)
10 î + 0 î
X cm = rcm = = 5 î
2
5 î − 3 î 2 î
V cm = =
= 1 î
2 2
Sum of external force is zero.
acm = 0
Vcm = constant
After 2 sec
Distance travelled = 2 × 1 = 2 î
Final X of centre of mass = 2 î + 5 î = 7 î
So, = 7m
92. (A)
Young’s modulus of a material is given by:
FL
Y=
AΔL
FL
= . . . (i)
πr2l
In the second case, young’s modulus remains the same. Hence,
F ′L ′
Y=
A ′ ΔL ′
2F × 2L
=
π(2r) 2 × ΔL ′
FL
= . . . (ii)
πr2ΔL ′
From (i) & (ii) ΔL ′ = l
93. (D)
q = cΔT
where c is constant and q is the rate of heat loss.
At 80 ∘ C, rate of heat loss is 60 cal/s
60 = c(80 − 20)
60 = c × 60
c=1
At 40 ∘ C,
q ′ = c(40 − 20) = 1 × 20
q ′ = 20 cal / s
94. (C)
TE = KE max (at mean position) = PE max (at extreme positions).
1
KE = 2 mω 2(A 2 − x 2) (general expression)
1
KE max = 2 mω 2A 2
Given: KE = 25% of KE max = KE max / 4
1
2
2
mω A − x ( 2 2
)= 1
2
×
mω2A 2
4
3A 2 √3
⇒ x2 = 4 ⇒ x = 2 A
√3 π
Now, 2 A = Asinωt ⇒ ωt = 3
2π π T 2 1
Or T t = 3 ⇒ t = 6 = 6 = 3 s (as T = 2s given)
95. (B)
As the source is moving towards the hill (the listener), therefore apparent frequency of horn
striking the wall is
v
n′ = ×n
v − vs
330
n′ = × 300
330 − 30
n ′ = 330 Hz
For the reflected sound, driver acts as listener moving towards source (the wall)
( v + v1 ) n ′ ( 330 + 30 ) × 330
∴ n″ = v
= 330
″
⇒ n = 360 Hz
96. (C)
v = νλ
From the figure, it is clear that: λ = 0.4 cm(for simplicity, take the distance between two
nearby
crests).
ν = 500 Hz(given)
v = 500 s − 1 × 0.4 cm = 200 cm s − 1 = 2 ms − 1
97. (A)
√
2GM
vc = √2gR = R
∴ vc ∝
√
M
R
⇒ (4πR ). ρ = (4πR )
2 2 M
( 4 / 3 ) πR3
M
∝ R
98. (C)
Initially 1st mass is moving in x-direction with velocity v, then it moves perpendicular to the initial
direction lets say +y direction, so lets assume 2nd mass moves with speed vx along x-axis and vy
along y-axis. Then by linear momentum conservation, we get
In X-direction
m v + 0 = 0 + m vx or vx = v
In Y-direction
0+0=m
() v
√3
+ m vy or vy = −
v
√3
∴ Speed of second mass after collision
v′ = √ [( ) ] √( )
−
v
√3
2
+ v2 =
4 2
3
v =
2
√3
v
99. (A)
Let the initial velocity of first ball is v and its velocity after collision is v1
the velocity of the ball 2 after collision with ball 1 is v2 and its velocity after collision with ball 3 is v2′
the velocity of ball 3 after collision with ball 2 is v3 ...........and so on
From conservation of linear momentum
First impact:
m
mv = e v2 + mv1..........................(1)
now the coefficient of restitution is e
v2 − v1
e= v
...................................(2)
from equation (1) & (2)
v1 = 0 & v2 = ev
second impact :
m m m
v = e v2′ + 2 v3 ...............................(3)
e 2 e
v 3 − v 2′
e= v2
.............................................(4)
from equation (3) & (4)
v2′ = 0 & v3 = ev2 = e 2v
similiarly,
for last impact:
vN = e N − 1v
100. (D)
Linear momentum is conserved ∴ 2m(− v) + m(2v) + (8m × 0) = (2m + m + 8m)vc
or− 2mv + 2mv + 0 = 11mvc ⇒ vc = 0 .........(i)
centre of mass of system lies at the center of rod here.
Again since angular momentum about centre of mass of system is conserved, we have
(2mv × a) + (m × 2v × 2a) = Iω
=
[( ) (
2m × a 2 + m × 4a 2 + ) 8m × ( 6a ) 2
v
12 ] ω
or 6mva = 30ma 2ω or ω = 5a ...........(ii) After collision, let rotational KE = E
( )×( )
1 1 v 2 30ma 2 × v 2 3mv 2 3mv 2
2 2
∴ E = 2 Iω or E = 2 × 30ma 5a
= = 5
or E = 5
2 × 25a 2
Hence a,c,d are correct.
101. (B)
A–Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate, B–3-Phosphoglyceric acid, C–Phosphoenol Pyruvic
acid, D–Ethanol + CO2, E–Lactic acid
102. (C)
The net reaction of C3 dark fixation of carbon dioxide is: 6 RuBP + 6CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH → 6
RuBP + C6H12O6 +18 ADP + 18Pi + 12 NADP+.
For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
are required. To make one molecule of glucose, 6 turns of the cycles are required (6 × 3 ATP = 18
ATP and 6 × 2 NADPH = 12 NADPH).
103. (B)
The extra coating of macromolecules outside the cell wall called the “glycocalyx” protects the cell
and helps it adhere to surfaces. A glycocalyx is considered a slime layer when the glycoprotein
molecules are loosely associated with the cell wall, whereas in a capsule the polysaccharides are
firmly attached to the cell wall.
104. (A)
There are five free-living N2 fixers in the above list. These are Nostoc, Anabaena, Azotobacter,
Rhodospirillum, and Beijerinckia.
105. (C)
The net reaction of C3 dark fixation of carbon dioxide is: 6 RuBP + 6CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH → 6
RuBP + C6H12O6 +18 ADP + 18Pi + 12 NADP+.
For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
are required. To make one molecule of glucose, 6 turns of the cycles are required (6 × 3 ATP = 18
ATP and 6 × 2 NADPH = 12 NADPH).
106. (B)
In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the
periphery of the organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch. In roots, the protoxylem lies
towards the periphery and the metaxylem lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of primary
xylem is called exarch.
107. (C)
Cohesion – The mutual attraction between water molecules. Adhesion – Attraction of water
molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of tracheary elements). Surface Tension – Water
molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase.
Effects of root pressure are also observable at night and early morning when evaporation is low,
and excess water collects in the form of droplets around special openings of veins near the tip of
grass blades, and leaves of many herbaceous parts. Such water loss in its liquid phase is known as
guttation.
108. (D)
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is found around the Golgi apparatus and is involved in protein
synthesis.
109. (C)
Mesosome is a specialized membranous structure which is formed by an extension of plasma
membrane into the cell. These extensions are in the form of vesicles, tubules, and lamellae.
110. (A)
The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte which consists of two stages.
The first stage is the protonema stage, which develops directly from a spore. It is a creeping,
autotrophic, branched and frequently filamentous stage. The second stage is the leafy stage,
which develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud.
111. (A)
Members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae because of the predominance of the
red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body. The food is stored as floridean starch. The red algae
usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation. They reproduce asexually by non-motile spores
and sexually by non-motile gametes.
112. (B)
The life cycle with the dominant haploid gametophytic generation is called the haplontic life cycle.
The life cycle with dominant diploid sporophytic generation is called the diplontic life cycle whereas
the haplodiplontic life cycle is represented by an intermediate condition where the gametophyte
or the sporophyte are almost equally dominant.
a-Haplodiplontic life cycle, b-diplontic life cycle, c-haplontic life cycle
113. (A)
Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes do
not have an independent free-living existence. They remain within the sporangia retained on the
sporophytes. The development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within the female
gametophytes.
114. (D)
In gymnosperms, the male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living
existence. They remain within the sporangia retained on the sporophytes. The pollen grain is
released from the microsporangium. They are carried in air currents and come in contact with the
opening of the ovules borne on megasporophylls.
115. (A)
Carl Linnaeus (1707- 1778), was a Swedish botanist, zoologist, and physician who formalised
binomial nomenclature, the modern system of naming organisms. This nomenclature system was
given by him in his book 'Species Plantarum'. In this technique, any living organism is named in two
parts. For example - the fruit mango is called "Mangifera indica". In this 'Mangifera' is the name
showing its genus while 'indica' shows the script. This is the most commonly used system for
naming both plants and animals.
116. (A)
In C3 plants, photosynthesis is decreased at higher temperatures due to increased
photorespiration. As a result, RuBisCO binds to oxygen instead of carbon dioxide. That's why C3
plants have a much lower temperature optimum as compared to C4 plants.
C4 plants have a higher temperature optimum because of the presence of pyruvate phosphate
dikinase enzyme, which is sensitive to lower temperatures. Hence, it shows a higher rate of
photosynthesis at higher temperatures.
117. (A)
PEP is the 3C compound and acts as the primary CO2 acceptor in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants,
leading to the formation of OAA, a C4 acid.
Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase (RUBISCO) is an enzyme found in the mesophyll cells
present within the C3 plants. In C4 plants, this enzyme is found in the bundle sheath cells.
118. (B)
Manganese sparks the photosynthesis process by splitting water after Photosystem II (PSII) fixes
light to initiate the conversion of CO2 and water into carbohydrates.
-Magnesium activates the enzymes of respiration, photosynthesis and is involved in the synthesis
of DNA and RNA.
-Boron is required for pollen germination and pollen tube growth.
-Iron activates catalase. Catalase is an enzyme that contains four iron heme groups that allows it
to react with the hydrogen peroxide.
119. (A)
One of the criteria of an essential element is that the requirement of the element must be specific
and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be
met by supplying some other element. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
120. (A)
The respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism, it would hence be better to
consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.
121. (B)
When the two photosystems work in a series, first PS II and then PS I, a process called non-cyclic
photo-phosphorylation occurs. The two photosystems are connected through an electron
transport chain, as seen earlier – in the Z scheme. Both ATP and NADPH + and H+ are synthesized
by this kind of electron flow. When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the
photosystem and the phosphorylation occurs due to the cyclic flow of electrons is called cyclic
photophosphorylation.
122. (B)
Blackman proposed the law of limiting factors in 1905. According to it, if a chemical process is
affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to
its minimal value. It is the factor that directly affects the process if its quantity is changed.
123. (D)
Most of the plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have the C4 pathway. These plants are
called C4 plants. Sugarcane, maize, sorghum, etc. are examples of these plants. In C4 pathway, the
primary CO2 acceptor is 3 carbon compound, phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) which is present in
mesophyll cells. PEP combines with CO2 to form 4 carbon compounds i.e., oxaloacetic acid (OAA) in
the presence of enzyme PEP carboxylase. Hence, the first stable product of CO2 fixation in
sorghum is oxaloacetic acid.
124. (D)
Lenticels permit the exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of
the stem. With the continuous increase in girth due to the activity of vascular cambium, the outer
cortical and epidermis layers get broken and need to be replaced to provide new protective cell
layers. Hence, sooner or later, another meristematic tissue called cork cambium or phellogen
develops, usually in the cortex region. Phellogen is a couple of layers thick. It is made of narrow,
thin-walled, and nearly rectangular cells. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells
differentiate into cork or phellem while the inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or
phelloderm. The cork is impervious to water due to suberin deposition in the cell wall.
125. (A)
If two systems containing water are in contact, random movement of water molecules will result in
net movement of water molecules from the system with higher energy to the one with lower
energy. Thus water will move from the system containing water at higher water potential to the
one having low water potential. Cell A has higher water potential (-3 bar) than cell B (-8 bar). Hence,
the movement of water will be from cell A to B. Therefore, the correct answer is Option (a).
126. (D)
• Option A - Water molecules possess kinetic energy. In liquid and gaseous form they are in
random motion that is both rapid and constant. The greater the concentration of water in a
system, the greater is its kinetic energy or ‘water potential’. Hence, pure water has the greatest
water potential. By convention, the water potential of pure water at standard temperatures, which
is not under any pressure, is taken to be zero.
• Option B - Movement by diffusion is passive, and may be from one part of the cell to the other, or
from cell to cell, or over short distances, say, from the inter-cellular spaces of the leaf to the
outside. No energy expenditure takes place. In diffusion, molecules move in a random fashion, the
net result being substances moving from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower
concentration.
• Option C - If two systems containing water are in contact, random movement of water molecules
will result in net movement of water molecules from the system with higher energy to the one with
lower energy. Thus water will move from the system containing water at higher water potential to
the one having low water potential.
127. (E)
All the given statements are correct:
• When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the
different radii, the arrangement is called radial such as in roots.
• Conjoint, closed vascular bundles enclose both xylem and phloem. Xylem is found towards the
inner surface and phloem towards the outer surface. Cambium is absent.
• Open vascular bundles are vascular bundles in which secondary growth is possible. This type of
vascular bundle has cambium present in between the xylem and phloem.
• Vascular bundles of dicot stem are eight in number, arranged in the form of a broken ring. The
vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open. Xylem is on the inner surface and phloem on
the outer surface. Xylem is described as endarch.
• Vascular bundles in monocot roots are radial, polyarch and exarch. Large number (more than 6)
of xylem and phloem groups alternate with each other.
128. (A)
In a dicot stem, the innermost layer of the cortex is called the endodermis. The cells of the
endodermis are rich in starch grains and the layer is also referred to as the starch sheath.
129. (B)
130. (C)
A hypertonic solution is a solution that contains more amounts for dissolved salts i.e., the
concentration of solute is more. When a cell is placed in hypertonic solution since the solvent
concentration is less, the solvent is exerted from the cell and the cytoplasm shrinks.
131. (D)
Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in pineapple. Ethylene also helps in synchronization of
flowering and fruit set up in pineapple.
132. (D)
Senescence is the phenomenon in which the mature leaves lose their pigment chlorophyll, turn
yellow, proteins are degraded and ultimately they shed from the plants. Richmond and Lang
(1957), observed that application of cytokinins delays the process of senescence for a number of
days. The phenomenon of delaying senescence by cytokinins is known as Richmond- Lang effect.
The influence of apical bud in suppressing the growth of lateral buds is termed as apical
dominance. According to Tbimann and Skoog (1934) the auxin in apical meristem, is translocated
downwards and inhibits the growth of lateral buds.
133. (C)
It has been hypothesised that there is a hormonal substance(s) that is responsible for flowering.
This hormonal substance migrates from leaves to shoot apices for inducing flowering only when
the plants are exposed to the necessary inductive photoperiod.
134. (B)
Ethylene is a gaseous phytohormone that regulates both growth, and senescence.
• It is produced in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and ripening fruits.
• It promotes or inhibits growth and senescence processes in the plants.
• Ethylene inhibits lateral buds and causes apical dominance.
• Ethylene promotes femaleness in Pineapple and Cucumber.
• It increases the number of female flowers in cucumber plants, thereby increasing the final yield.
• The hormone also increases the absorption surface area of the root as it promotes root growth
and root hair formation.
135. (A)
The Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia. The mycelium is septate
and branched. Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are
decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum, and
Trichoderma. Aspergillus is a member of Ascomycota or sac fungi.
136. (C)
• Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae (desmids). Diatoms are the chief ‘producers’ in
the oceans.
• Dinoflagellates appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red depending on the main pigments
present in their cells.
• In slime moulds, during unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms
fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips. The spores possess true walls. They are extremely
resistant and survive for many years, even under adverse conditions.
• Instead of a cell wall, Euglenoids have a protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body
flexible.
• Protozoans belong to the Kingdom Protista. All single-celled eukaryotes are placed under
Protista. Hence, Protozoans comprise of unicellular eukaryotes.
137. (C)
(a) is showing diagrammatic representation of Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) and (b) is a
bacteriophage. RNA is the genetic material in TMV. But, most bacteriophages have DNA as genetic
material. TMV infect plants and bacteriophages infect bacteria. Obligate parasites can not
complete their life cycle without their hosts. Both TMV and bacteriophages require their host cells,
plants cells and bacterial cells respectively to complete their life cycles.
138. (C)
The condition of fused pistil is known as syncarpous. Process of gamete formation is known as
gametogenesis. The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals united) or polysepalous (sepals free).
Unisexual female flower contain only female reproductive organ and is known as pistillate flower.
Hence correct matching is: a) - iii), b) - i), c) - iv), d) - ii)
139. (D)
In the given figure showing L.S. of maize grain, A, B, C and D represent aleurone layer, scutellum,
coleorhiza and starchy endosperm respectively.
140. (C)
A seed may have one or two coverings called seed coats. The outer or the only seed coat (if one is
present) is called testa while the inner one is named as tegmen.
141. (D)
In symmetry, the flower may be actinomorphic (radial symmetry) or zygomorphic (bilateral
symmetry). When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any the radial plane
passing through the center is said to be actinomorphic, e.g., mustard, datura, chilli. When it can be
divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic, e.g., pea,
gulmohur, bean, Cassia. A flower is asymmetric (irregular) if it cannot be divided into two similar
halves by any vertical plane passing through the center, as in canna.
142. (C)
This is because the RER has ribosomes on its surface (which make it rough). These ribosomes are
the organelles responsible for protein synthesis in the cell and are therefore called ‘The protein
factories of the cell’. Together, the RER and its attached ribosomes synthesize proteins which are
essential for multiple functions in a very active cell. The SER, on the other hand, is involved in lipid
synthesis and detoxification of drugs.
143. (C)
Statement (c) is incorrect as only eukaryotes cells have chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are membrane
bound cellular organelles which are absent in prokaryotic cells.
144. (A)
Mycoplasma is the smallest bacterium with a size of 0.1-0.5μm as it lacks a cell wall. A typical
bacterial cell measures 3-5μm in length. Erythrocytes or red blood cells are 6-8μm in diameter. The
largest among all is the egg of Ostrich which can measure upto 170 mm x 130 mm.
145. (B)
Plant shown in the figure is Sphagnum. It is a bryophyte, commonly called as peat moss. It often
grows in acidic marshes. It is hygroscopic and possesses a remarkable water holding capacity.
Hence, it is used as a packing material in transportation of flowers. It is also used in seedbeds and
in moss sticks.
146. (B)
Hierarchy of categories is the classification of organisms in a definite sequence of categories
(taxonomic categories) in a descending order starting from kingdom and reaching up to species or
an ascending order from species to kingdom. The number of similar characters of categories
decreases from lowest rank (species) to highest rank (kingdom). The taxonomic hierarchy includes
seven obligate categories—kingdom, division or phylum, class, order, family, genus and species.
147. (B)
Following are the correct matches of scientific names and common names of the organisms:
148. (A)
In the given figure of Nostoc,as mentioned part A is the Heterocyst which is the specialised cell that
can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the blue-green algae, and part B is the mucilaginous sheath which
is present on the surface of the organism.
149. (B)
The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. The placentation are of
different type namely, marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central and free central. In marginal
placentation the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are
borne on this ridge forming two rows, e.g. pea. When the placenta is axial and the ovules are
attached to it in a multilocular ovary, the placentation is said to be axile, e.g. China rose, tomato
and lemon. In parietal placentation, the ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on
peripheral part. Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of
false septum, e.g., mustard. When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent, as in
Primrose. The placentation is called free central. In basal placentation, the placenta develops at
the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it, e.g. sunflower, marigold.
150. (D)
When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal, or epiphyllous when
attached to the perianth as in the flowers of lily. The stigma is usually at the tip of the style and is
the receptive surface for pollen grains.
151. (A)
The Oxygen dissociation curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H+
concentration, etc., on binding of O2 with haemoglobin. In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low
pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature, favour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
In the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist, are
favourable conditions for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.
152. (A)
Tidal volume is the volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration. It is approximately
500 mL. Inspiratory reserve volume is an additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forceful
inspiration. It is around 2500-3000 mL. Expiratory reserve volume is the additional volume of air a
person can be exhaled by a forceful expiration. Its value is 1000 – 1100 mL. Residual volume is a
volume of air remaining in the lungs even after forceful expiration. Its value is 1100 – 1200 mL.
153. (A)
Both the statements are correct. Fatty acids and glycerol are insoluble, hence cannot be absorbed
into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the
intestinal mucosa. They are re-formed into very small protein coated fat globules called the
chylomicrons which are transported into the lymph vessels (lacteals) in the villi. These lymph
vessels ultimately release the absorbed substances into the bloodstream.
154. (A)
In humans, dentition is
Thecodont: Teeth are embedded in the sockets of the jaw bone.
Diphyodont: Teeth erupts twice in the whole life. Temporary milk or deciduous teeth are replaced
by a set of permanent or adult teeth.
Heterodont dentition: Dentition consists of different types of teeth namely incisors, canine,
premolars, and molars.
155. (C)
Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is
represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of
oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are 104 and 40 respectively. In
the atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is 0.3 mm Hg. In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40
mmHg and pCO2 is 45 mmHg. In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2 is 40 mmHg.
156. (D)
Stomach has lowest pH because of HCl secretion from gastric glands. Liver produces bile juice
which is stored in gallbladder and bile salts or bile are emulsifiers. Large intestine does not secrete
many enzymes. Not all proteases function in the lumen of the small intestine. Pepsin activity
occurs in the stomach.
157. (A)
Arrival of action potential at axon terminal→Depolarization of presynaptic membranes→ Synaptic
vesicle fuses with presynaptic membrane, neurotransmitter release into synaptic
cleft→Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on postsynaptic membrane→Opening of specific ion
channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in the postsynaptic neuron
158. (B)
159. (D)
The hormones produced by the hypothalamus control body temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep,
circadian rhythm, moods, sex drive, and the release of other hormones in the body. The hunger
and satiety centre, the thermoregulatory centre is present in the hypothalamus. So, a tumor in
that region may cause abnormalities, such as low body temperature, loss of appetite, and extreme
thirst.
160. (D)
The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, divided into two hemispheres. These areas control
muscle functions, speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. The cerebellum or
little brain is a structure of the central nervous system. It has an important role in maintaining
body posture (motor control). The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain. It's located at the
base of the brain, near the pituitary gland. It stimulates or inhibits (control regulation) the
production of hormones in the anterior pituitary. The human brain is well protected by the skull.
Inside the skull, the brain is covered by cranial meninges consisting of an outer layer called
dura mater, a very thin middle layer called arachnoid and an inner layer (which is in contact with
the brain tissue) called pia mater. The medulla contains centres which control respiration,
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions.
161. (D)
162. (D)
Ovary produces two steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone. Oestrogens produce wide
ranging actions such as stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs,
development of growing ovarian follicles, appearance of female secondary sex characters (e.g.
high pitch of voice, etc.) mammary gland development. Oestrogens also regulate female sexual
behaviour.
Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans of the endocrine pancreas secrete a hormone called glucagon. It
is a peptide hormone and plays an important role in maintaining the normal blood glucose levels.
It acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis resulting in an
increased blood sugar (hyperglycemia).
The pars distalis region of pituitary, commonly called anterior pituitary, secretes Growth Hormone
(GH). Over secretion of GH stimulates abnormal growth of the body leading to gigantism and low
secretion of GH results in stunted growth resulting in dwarfism.
163. (C)
Thymus secretes thymosin which helps in differentiation of T-lymphocytes. The adrenal medulla
secretes catecholamine which stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to increase the blood glucose
concentration during emergency situations. The Leydig’s cells or interstitial cells present in the
intertubular spaces in testis, produce a group of hormones called testosterone. Thyroid gland
secretes thyroxine and triiodothyronine which contain iodine.
164. (C)
The hormones produced by hypothalamus are of two types, the releasing hormones (which
stimulate secretion of pituitary hormones) and the inhibiting hormones (which inhibit secretions
of pituitary hormones). These hormones originating in the hypothalamic neurons, pass through
axons and are released from their nerve endings. These hormones reach the pituitary gland
through a portal circulatory system and regulate the functions of the anterior pituitary
165. (A)
In an ECG, the P wave represents the depolarization of both atria which leads to their contraction
(atrial systole).
Whereas QRS wave represents depolarization of ventricles which initiates ventricular contraction.
T wave represents repolarisation of ventricles.

166. (C)
Tricuspid valves are present between the right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid valves are
present between the left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are present at the openings of
the aortic and pulmonary aorta.
167. (C)
The joint between the atlas and the axis is a pivot joint which is an example of a synovial joint.
These joints are characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the
articulating surface of the two bones.
168. (C)
Estrogen helps keep the bones healthful and strong. As estrogen levels decrease, bone loss may
occur. For example, women who are post-menopausal are at an increased risk of developing
osteoporosis and bone fractures.
169. (D)
Blood clot or coagulum is formed mainly of a network of threads called fibrins in which dead and
damaged formed elements of blood are trapped, so the statement, coagulum is formed of a
network of threads called thrombins is incorrect. RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after
which they are destroyed in the spleen, hence the spleen is called the graveyard of RBCs.
170. (D)
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of pellet
or paste with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals. Pavo (Peacock) belongs to
class aves (birds). Hence, it excretes nitrogenous wastes in the form of pellets or paste.
Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) is a mammal and is ureotelic (excretes urea). Salamandra (Salamander)
is an amphibian and is ammonotelic (excretes ammonia). Hippocampus is a bony fish and is
ammonotelic.
171. (A)
The sandwich-like assembly of the filtration membrane permits filtration of water and small
solutes but prevents filtration of most plasma proteins, blood cells and platelets into the lumen of
the Bowman’s capsule. Since this process of filtration of blood is so fine, this process is known as
ultrafiltration.
172. (B)
The entire heart is made of cardiac muscles. The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of
the atria. The oxygenated blood entering the aorta is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles
and capillaries to the tissues. From the tissues, the deoxygenated blood is collected by a system of
venules, veins and vena cava and emptied into the right atrium.
173. (D)
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × heart beats per minute
Cardiac output
∴ Stroke volume = Heart beats per min ute
5250
= = 70 ml
75
174. (C)
Substances like glucose and amino acids are those substances that are reabsorbed actively into
the blood by the active transport and therefore they do not appear in the urine in normal
conditions. The countercurrent mechanism in the loop of Henle and vasa recta helps to
concentrate the urine. Haemodialyser does not remove glucose and plasma proteins. In the
glomerulus, plasma proteins are not filtered out.
175. (A)
The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
→The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate →The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical
bonds of the substrate → The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free
to bind to another substrate
176. (A)
S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. During the G2 phase, proteins are
synthesized in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues. These cells that do not divide
further exit the G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called the quiescent stage (G0) of the cell cycle.
G1 phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. During the
G1 phase, the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.
177. (A)
Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material. The chromosomal
material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation. Thus, in prophase
chromosome material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. Chromosomes are
seen to be composed of two chromatids attached together at the centromere. So, Both Assertion
and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
178. (D)
Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle in which a typical cell spends most of its life where the cell
obtains nutrients and metabolizes them, grows, replicates its DNA in preparation for division, and
conducts other normal cell functions.
The amount of the DNA content (not the chromosome number) gets doubled in S-phase.
The cells that do not divide further exit G1-phase to enter an inactive stage called the quiescent
phase.
179. (C)
In a dehydration reaction, two molecules of the sugar glucose (monomers) combine to form a
single molecule of the sugar maltose. Two glucose molecules should combine to form a
disaccharide C12H24O12 . However, due to dehydration, one H2O molecule is eliminated and the
final product is C12H22O11.
180. (D)
In animals that exhibit triploblastic organization, there are three germ layers- endoderm,
mesoderm and ectoderm. A corresponds to the ectoderm as it is the outermost layer. B
corresponds to endoderm as it is the innermost layer. D corresponds to the mesoderm as it is the
layer between the ectoderm and endoderm.
In Diploblastic animals, mesoderm is absent and an intervening layer called mesoglea is present.
So, B corresponds to mesoglea.
181. (B)
Cnidarians (Coelenterates) exhibit two basic body forms called polyp and medusa. The polyp is a
sessile and cylindrical form like Hydra, Adamsia, etc. whereas the medusa is umbrella-shaped and
free-swimming like Aurelia or jellyfish. Those Coelenterates that exist in both the forms exhibit a
phenomenon called metagenesis or alternation of generation. The polyps (sessile) produce
medusae asexually, and medusae form the polyps sexually (e.g., Obelia).
182. (A)
All members of Animalia are multicellular, but all of them do not exhibit the same pattern of
organization of cells. In sponges the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates, i.e., they exhibit
cellular level of organisation.
183. (C)
Maxilla- It is a part of an insect's mouthparts that are paired and are arranged behind the
mandibles.
Mandible- They are a pair of shorts, triangular, hard, unjointed, and polysaccharide structures
present on either side of the mouth.
Labium- It is also referred to as the lower lip which is formed by the fusion of the second pair of
maxillae.
Labrum- It is a flap-like structure also referred to as upper lip, that lies immediately in front of the
mouth.
184. (D)
The columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells. Their nuclei are
located at the base. The free surface may have microvilli. They are found in the lining of the
stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption. If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear
cilia on their free surface they are called the ciliated epithelium.
185. (A)
(a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file- like a rasping organ for feeding called radula.
(b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx excretion takes place through malpighian tubules.
(c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which
help in locomotion.
(d) Taenia is a platyhelminth. Specialised cells called flame cells help in osmoregulation and
excretion in it.
186. (B)
Neurons are called excitable cells because they are capable of generating and conducting
electrical impulses called as nerve impulses. Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes
are in a polarised state.
187. (D)
A - amylase
B - lactase
C - maltase
D - invertase
So, the correct answer is (d).
188. (C)
A – trachea is supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.
B – pleural membrane, prevents separation of the two pleural layers and lubricates the surface, so
the lungs can move easily within the thoracic cavity.
D – represents the diaphragm.
189. (C)
Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm which increases the volume of thoracic
chamber in antero-posterior axis and contraction of external inter-costal muscles which lifts up
the ribs and sternum causing increases in the volume of thoracic chamber in dorsoventral axis.
This increase in thoracic volume causes an increase in pulmonary volume. It decreases the intra-
pulmonary pressure to less than atmospheric pressure which allows the entry of air from outside
to the lungs i.e., inspiration.
190. (A)
Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase which hydrolyses starch into maltose.
Bile salts are important in solubilizing dietary fats in the watery environment of the small intestine.
Chymosin, known also as rennin, is a proteolytic enzyme related to pepsin that synthesized by
chief cells in the stomach of some animals. Its role in digestion is to curdle or coagulate milk in the
stomach, a process of considerable importance in the very young animal.
Pepsin is an endopeptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides (that is, a protease). It
is produced in the stomach and is one of the main digestive enzymes in the digestive systems of
humans and many other animals, where it helps digest the proteins in food.
191. (B)
In humans, four parathyroid glands are present on the backside of the thyroid gland, one pair
each in the two lobes of the thyroid gland. X here represents the parathyroid glands. The secretion
of PTH is regulated by the circulating levels of calcium ions. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases
the Ca2+ levels in the blood. So, Y here represents a lowered level of blood Ca2+ which is restored
by the PTH hormone.
192. (D)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood by bone resorption/
dissolution/demineralization, reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and by increasing Ca2+
absorption from the digested food.
193. (A)
Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine particles having molecular weight less than 68,000
daltons through the Malpighian corpuscle.
The concentration of urine refers to water absorption from glomerular filtrate in Henle’s loop by
counter-current mechanism.
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder through the ureter.
The urinary bladder is concerned with the storage of urine.
194. (C)
The correct option is (c) because the length of the A-band is retained. During muscle contraction,
the following events occur: (1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase and hydrolyses ATP
molecule and eventually leads to the formation of cross-bridge. (2) This pulls the actin filament
towards the center of the 'A-band'. (3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards
thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere. (4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick
myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows. This reduces the length of the I-band but retains
the length of the A-band. (5) The myosin then releases ADP+Pi and goes back to its relaxed state.
195. (A)
Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic
complement. Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. It
therefore becomes essential for the cell to divide to restore the nucleo- -cytoplasmic ratio. A very
significant contribution of mitosis is cell repair. The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells
of the lining of the gut, and blood cells are being constantly replaced. Mitotic divisions in the
meristematic tissues – the apical and the lateral cambium, results in a continuous growth of plants
throughout their life.
196. (C)
The figure (a) represents the amino acid glycine. Figure (b) represents amino acid alanine whereas
figure (c) represents the amino acid serine.
197. (C)
A = Concentration of substrate, B = Vmax./2, C = Km constant, D = Velocity of reaction
198. (B)
Four characters of chordates are the presence of Notochord, dorsal hollow nervous system,
pharyngeal gill slits and post anal tail. Electric ray belongs to class chondrichthyes while sea horse
belongs to class osteichthyes. Agnatha are commonly called jawless vertebrates.
The characteristic features of Aves (birds) are the presence of feathers. Their skin is dry without
glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail.
199. (A)
Numerous minute pores called nephridiopores open on the surface of the body. In each body
segment, except the first, last and clitellum, there are rows of S-shaped setae, embedded in the
epidermal pits in the middle of each segment.
200. (C)
In frogs, or Rana tigrina, the skin is smooth and slippery due to the presence of mucus. The dorsal
side of the body is generally olive green with dark irregular spots. On the ventral side the skin is
uniformly pale yellow. Frogs never drink water but absorb it through the skin.
Body of a frog is divisible into a head and a trunk. A neck and tail are absent. Hind limbs end in five
digits and they are larger and muscular than forelimbs that end in four digits.

NEET 11 - Full Test

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3. In a given shell, the order of screening effect is

4. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali and ions is:

5. Which of the following statements is correct?

6. Which of the following tetrahlides does not act as Lewis acid?

8. Which carbocation is the most stable?

9. Nitration of benzene by nitric acid and sulphuric acid is

Which of these species is anti-aromatic?

13. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

17. Modern periodic table is based on the

20. The lUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

23. Ammoniacal silver nitrate forms a while precipitate easily with

24. Assertion: Toluene on Friedel Crafts methylation gives o- and p-xylene.

2C6H 6 ( ℓ ) + 15O 2 ( g ) → 12CO 2 ( g ) + 6H 2O ( ℓ )

(c) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3

33. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?

35. Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to

37. The temporary hardness of water is due to:

38. Which of the following has the maximum number of atoms?

40. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant, is produced by:

46. If electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2, then emitted energy is

47. Ratio of energy of a photon of wavelength 200 nm to that of 400 nm is

Then the compressibility factor can be given as

49. Elements of group 13 mainly form covalent compounds because

50. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of solute in

52. Which of the following is correct about friction?

59. The bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is:

(a) 7.5 × 105 joule

(a) 2 m/s in original direction

82. The dimensions of thermal resistance is

A–Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, B–Lactic acid, C–3-Phosphoglyceric acid, D–Ethanol + CO2,

107. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

110. Which of the following defines protonema?

111. Study the following statement.

115. Binomial Nomenclature is the system

117. Given below are two statements:

(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii)

121. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

123. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is

124. Match list I with list II.

(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i)

127. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles

128. Given below are two statements:

(a) A : carrier protein, B: symport, C: uniport, D : antiport

132. Pick out the correct statements.

134. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

135. Consider the following statements about Deuteromycetes:

136. Read the following pair:

(a) RNA is the genetic material

(a) a) - ii), b) - i), c) - iv), d) - iii)

(a) A-(1), B-(3), C-(4), D-(2)

141. Given below are two statements:

(a) Selaginella - Pteridophyte

(a) A-ii, B-v, C-i, D-iii, E-iv

(a) A-Heterocyst ; B-Mucilaginous sheath

(a) A → Marginal ; B → Basal ; C → Parietal ; D →Free central ; E → Axile

151. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(a) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (iv); d → (ii)

153. Given below are two statements :

154. Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

(a) A=t, B=s, C=q, D=p

(a) A-Placenta, B-Insulin, C-Vasopressin