22 JMI MBA (Full Time) M-55
22 JMI MBA (Full Time) M-55
Date: ______________
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SET – D
ROLL NO.
Signature of Invigilator
Time : THREE HORS Total Marks : 170
Instructions to Candidates
1. Do not write your name or put any other mark of identification anywhere in the OMR Response Sheet.
IF ANY MARK OF IDENTIFICATIONS IS DISCOVERED ANYWHERE IN OMR RESPONSE
SHEET, the OMR sheet will be cancelled, and will not be evaluated.
2. This Question Booklet contains the cover page and a total of 100 Multiple Choice Questions of 1 mark
each.
3. Space for rough work has been provided at the beginning and end. Available space on each page may
also be used for rough work.
4. There is negative marking for Multiple Choice Questions. For each wrong answer, 0.25 marks will
be deducted.
5. USE / POSSESSION OF ELECTRONIC GADGETS LIKE MOBILE PHONE, iPhone, iPad , page
ETC. is strictly PROHIBITED.
6. Candidate should check the serial order of questions at the beginning of the test. If any question is found
missing in the serial order, it should be immediately brought to the notice of the Invigilator. No pages
should be torn out from this question booklet.
7. Answer must be marked in the OMR response sheet which is provided separately. OMR answer sheet
must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the seat.
8. The OMR response sheet should not be folded or wrinkled. The folded or wrinkled OMR / Response
Sheet will not be evaluated.
9. Write your Roll Number in the appropriate space (above) and on the OMR Response Sheet. Any other
details, if asked for, should be written only in the space provided.
10. There are four options to each question marked A, B, C and D. Select one of the most appropriate
options and fill up the corresponding oval/Circle in the OMR Response Sheet provided to you. The
correct procedure for filling up the OMR Response Sheet is mentioned below.
CORRECT METHOD
A C D
WRONG METHOD
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D A B C D
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A B C D
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the question given below: (Q 1 – 2)
A fortune teller has a unique way of predicting his customer‘s fate. He has kept three parrots in
three different cages. Each cage also has three cards with a single digit non-zero number inscribed
on every card. No two cards have the same number and no cages contain two cards with digits
summing to ten. Further the total of the numbers on the three cards in the first cage is greater
than the second by two and the third cage by four. When a customer asks for his prognosis, the
fortune teller lets out the three parrots which randomly pick one card out of their respective
cages. Before the prognosis is made, the fortune teller totals the digits on the three cards picked
out and charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the cards. One day a
customer paid seven rupees for his prognosis.
1. What is the maximum sum of money that someone may pay
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 21
2. What is the lowest payment possible
(A) Rs. 6 (B) Rs. 7 (C) Rs. 5 (D) Rs. 8
Data Analysis and Sufficiency
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the question given below: (Q3 – 9)
Ampee, Bumpee, Chumpee, Dumpee and Pumpee are five ducks. Initially they had 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
eggs, not necessarily in that order. They laid 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 eggs (not necessarily in that order) and
finally had 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 eggs (not necessarily in that order) in the end. Further information
regarding them is given:
1. Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end.
2. Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs.
3. Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
4. Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with.
3. The duck that ended with maximum number of eggs started with how many number of egg
(A) Ampee (B) Bumpee (C) Chumpee (D) Either Ampee or Bumpee
4. What is the name of the duck that laid 1 egg
(A) Ampee (B) Bumpee (C) Chumpee (D) Either Ampee or Bumpee
5. How many eggs the duck that ended with 6 egg s lay
(A) Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end
(B) Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs
(C) Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
(D) Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with
6. How many eggs the duck that started with 3 egg s lay
(A) Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end
(B) Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs
(C) Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
(D) Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with
7. A sum of money is sufficient to pay Sachin‘s salary of 45 days and kale‘s salary for 60 days.
For how many days can the sum pay the salary of both?
(A) 180/7 days (B) 280/11 days (C) 25 days (D) 270/11 days
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30. Two walls and the ceiling of a room meet at right angles at point P. A fly is in the
air, 1 meter from one wall, 8 meters from the other wall and 9 meters from the point P. Since 2002
How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C)15 (D) None of these
31. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their sum is 288. How many pairs of such numbers are
possible?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 2
32. Three company of soldiers containing 120, 192, and 144 soldiers are to be broken down into
smaller groups such that each group contains soldiers from one company only and all the groups
have equal number of soldiers. What is the least number of total groups formed?
(A) 29 (B)39 (C) 49 (D) 19
33. If a book has 252 pages, how many digits have been used to number the pages?
(A) 650 (B) 660 (C) 648 (D) None of these
34. For an odd number n, find the highest number that always divides n × (n2 – 1)?
(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 48 (D) 96
35. The cost of 3 hamburgers, 5 milk shakes, and 1 order of fries at a certain fast food restaurant is
Rs, 23.50. At the same restaurant , the cost of 5 hamburger , 9 milk shakes and 1 order of fries
is Rs. 39.50. What is the cost of 2 hamburgers, 2 milk shakes, and 2 orders of fries at this
restaurant?
(A) 10 (B).5 (C)7.5 (D) .15
36. If x and y are positive integers and x – y = 101, find the value of x2 + y2.
2 2
37. On writing first 252 positive integers in a straight line. How many times digit 4 appears?
(A) 55 (B) 50 (C) 52 (D) 54
38. India and Australia player one – day international cricket series until anyone team win 4 matches.
No match ended in a draw. In how many ways can the series be won?
(A) 35 (B) 70 (C) 105 (D) 140
39. The sum of all the possible numbers of 4 digits formed by digits 3, 5, 5 and 6 using each digit once
is
(A) 64427 (B) 63327 (C) 65297 (D) 43521
40. In CAT 2007 there were 75 questions. Each correct answer was rewarded by 4 marks and each
wrong answer was penalized by 1 mark. In how many different combination of correct and wrong
answer is a score of 50 possible?
(A) 14 (B) None of these (C) 16 (D) 15
41. The domain of the function f x 2 2x x f(x) 2 2x x is
2 2
(A) 3 x 3 3 x 3 (B) 1 3 x 1 3 1 3 x 1 3
(C) 2 x 2 2 x 2 (D) 2 3 x 2 3
42. f ( x) x 1x 3x 2 f ( x) x 1x 3x 2 is a real value function in the domin
(A) 1,2 3 1,2U 3 (B) ,1U 3, ,1 3,
(C) ,1U 2,3 ,1 2,3 (D) None of these
43. The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced form coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your
answer.
1. Scientists have for the first time managed to edit genes in a human embryo to repair a genetic mutation,
fuelling hopes that such procedures may one day be available outside laboratory conditions.
2. The cardiac disease causes sudden death in otherwise healthy young athletes and affects about one in
500 people overall.
3. Correcting the mutation in the gene would not only ensure that the child is healthy but also prevents
transmission of the mutation to future generations.
4. It is caused by a mutation in a particular gene and a child will suffer from the condition even if it
inherits only one copy of the mutated gene.
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 12 3
44. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of passage. As Soviet power declined, the world became to some extent
multipolar, and Europe strove to define an independent identity. What a journey Europe has
undertaken to reach this point. It had in every century changed its internal structure and invented
new ways of thinking about the nature of international order. Now at the culmination of an era,
Europe, in order to participate in it, felt obliged to set aside the political mechanisms through which
it had conducted its affairs for three and a half centuries. Impelled also by the desire to cushion the
emergent unification of Germany, the new European Union established a common currency in 2002
and a formal political structure in 2004. It proclaimed a Europe united, whole, and free, adjusting its
differences by peaceful mechanisms.
1. Europe has consistently changed its internal structure to successfully adapt to the changing world
order.
2. Europe has consistently changed in keeping with the changing world order and that has
culminated in a united Europe.
3. The establishment of a formal political structure in Europe was hastened by the unification of
Germany and the emergence of a multipolar world.
4. Europe has chosen to lower political and economic heterogeneity, in order to adapt itself to an
emerging multi-polar world.
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
45. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together of
them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the
number of the sentence as your answer:
1. Talk was the most common way for enslaved men and women to subvert the rules of their
bondage, to gain more agency than they were supposed to have.
2. Even in conditions of extreme violence and unfreedom, their words remained ubiquitous,
ephemeral, irrepressible, and potentially transgressive.
3. Slaves came from societies in which oaths, orations, and invocations carried great potency, both
between people and as a connection to the all-powerful spirit world.
4. Freedom of speech and the power to silence may have been preeminent markers of white liberty in
Colonies, but at the same time, slavery depended on dialogue: slaves could never be completely
muted.
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
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46. Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph.
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North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars (Amorpha juglandis) look like easy
meals for birds, but they have a trick up their sleeves—they produce whistles that sound like bird
alarm calls, scaring potential predators away. At first, scientists suspected birds were simply startled
by the loud noise. But a new study suggests a more sophisticated mechanism: the caterpillar‘s whistle
appears to mimic a bird alarm call, sending avian predators scrambling for cover. When pecked by a
bird, the caterpillars whistle by compressing their bodies like an accordion and forcing air out
through specialized holes in their sides. The whistles are impressively loud – they have been
measured at over 80 dB from 5 cm away from the caterpillar – considering they are made by a two-
inch long insect.
1. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars will whistle periodically to ward off predator birds
– they have a specialized vocal tract that helps them whistle.
2. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars can whistle very1 loudly; the loudness of their
whistles is shocking as they are very small insects.
3. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of acoustic deception, produce whistles
that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.
4. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of deception and camouflage, produce
whistles that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
47. Train service suffers when a railroad combines commuter and freight service. By dividing its
attention between its freight and commuter customers, a railroad serves neither particularly well.
Therefore, if a railroad is going to be a successful business, then it must concentrate exclusively on
one of these two markets.
For the argument to be logically correct, it must make which one of the following assumptions?
(A) Unless a railroad serves its customers well, it will not be a successful business.
(B) Commuter and freight service have little in common with each other.
(C) The first priority of a railroad is to be a successful business.
(D) If a railroad concentrates on commuter service, it will be a successful business.
48. The term ―pit bull‖ does not designate a breed of dog, as do the terms ―German shepherd‖ and
―poodle.‖ It is like the terms ―Seeing-Eye dog‖ and ―police dog,‖ which designate dogs according
to what they do. If you take two German shepherds and place them side by side, you cannot tell by
appearance alone which is the police dog and which is the Seeing-Eye dog.
Which one of the following is the main point of the passage?
(A) A dog is a pit bull because of what it does, not because of its breed.
(B) Pit bulls can be distinguished from other kinds of dogs by appearance alone.
(C) German shepherds can function both as police dogs and as Seeing-Eye dogs.
(D) Some breeds of dogs cannot be distinguished from other breeds of dogs by appearance alone.
Fill up the blanks to make the sentence appropriate. (Q. 49 – 50):
49. How much a man earns is as important as __________
(A) why does he earn of all (B) when does he do so
(C) how does he do it (D) where does he earn
50. The notice at the petrol pump should be ______
(A) all engines must have to be switched off. (B) all engines must be switched off.
(C) all engines have to be switched off. (D) all engines must need to be switched off.
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Choose the correct synonym of the given word (Q 51 – 53):
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51. Fastidious
(A) Finicky (B) Overaspiring (C) Overconfidence (D) Overfed
52. Alacrity
(A) Eagerness (B) with suspicion (C) Unwillingly (D) Hesitatingly
53. Estrange
(A) Alienate (B) Miscalculate (C) To become puzzling (D) Endanger
56. Mother dolphin whistle to their calves frequently after birth so that the calves will learn
recognizing their distinctive whistle.
(A) learn recognising their distinctive whistle.
(B)learn to recognise their distinctive whistle.
(C) will learn to recognise their distinctive whistle.
(D) learn to recognise their mother's distinctive whistle.
57. Most people cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather then deal with their feelings.
(A) cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather than deal with their feelings.
(B) cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather than dealing with their feelings.
(C) cope with anxiety by reaching for food rather than deal with their feelings.
(D) cope with anxiety by reaching for food rather than dealing with their feelings.
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SECTION – I – ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Since 2002
VERBAL ABILITY
DIRECTION – Answer the questions given below after reading the given passages.
Passage – I (Q. 58 – 65)
Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early history of the United States by applying new
social research findings on the experiences of European migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration
becomes the organizing principle for rewriting the history of preindustrial North America. His
approach rests on four separate propositions.
The first of these asserts that residents of early modern England moved regularly about their
countryside; migrating to the New World was simply a ―natural spillover.‖ Although at first the
colonies held little positive attraction for the English—they would rather have stayed home—by the
eighteenth century people increasingly migrated to America because they regarded it as the land of
opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in America
history textbooks, there was never a typical New World community. For example, the economic and
demographic character of early New England towns varied considerably.
Bailyn‘s third proposition suggests two general patterns prevailing among the many thousands of
migrants: one group came as indentured servants, another came to acquire land. Surprisingly,
Bailyn suggests that those who recruited indentured servants were the driving forces of
transatlantic migration. These colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the social character of
people who came to preindustrial North America. At first, thousands of unskilled laborers were
recruited; by the 1730‘s, however, American employers demanded skilled artisans.
Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-civilized hinterland of the European culture
system. He is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were part of an Anglo-American
empire. But to divide the empire into English core and colonial periphery, as Bailyn does, devalues
the achievements of colonial culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high culture in the colonies
never matched that in England. But what of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university, and published books? Bailyn might respond
that New England was exceptional. However, the ideas and institutions developed by New England
Puritans had powerful effects on North American culture.
Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to some thousands of indentured servants who
migrated just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experience with the political development
of the United States. Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might make such a
connection. These indentured servants were treated as slaves for the period during which they had
sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising that as soon as they served their time
they passed up good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their personal independence by
acquiring land. Thus, it is in the west that a peculiarly American political culture began, among
colonists who were suspicious of authority and intensely anti-aristocratic.
58. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about Bailyn‘s work?
(A) Bailyn‘s description of the colonies as part of an Anglo-American empire is misleading and
incorrect.
(B) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific group of migrants to colonial North America.
(C) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants to the New England colonies, and neglects
the southern and the western parts of the New World.
(D) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought on North American culture.
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59. It can be inferred from the passage that American history textbooks used to assert that
(A) more migrants came to America out of religious or political conviction that came in the hope
of acquiring land
(B) New England communities were much alike in terms of their economics and demographics
(C) many migrants to colonial North America failed to maintain ties with their European relations
(D) the level of literacy in New England communities was very high
60. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) suggesting that new social research on migration should lead to revisions in current
interpretations of early American history
(B) providing the theoretical framework that is used by most historians in understanding early
American history
(C) discussing a reinterpretation of early American history that is based on new social research
on migration
(D) refuting an argument about early American history that has been proposed by social
historians
61. According to the passage, which of the following is true of English migrants to the colonies during
the eighteenth century?
(A) Most of them came because they were unable to find work in England.
(B) They expected that the colonies would offer them increased opportunity.
(C) They differed from other English people in that they were willing to travel.
(D) They were generally not as educated as the people who remained in England.
62. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree on which of the following statements about
the culture of colonial New England?
(A) High culture in New England never equaled the high culture of England.
(B)The cultural achievements of colonial New England have generally been unrecognized by
historians.
(C) The colonists imitated the high culture of England, and did not develop a culture that was
uniquely their own.
(D) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by the high culture of New England.
63. Which of the following best summarizes the author‘s evaluation of Bailyn‘s fourth proposition?
(A) It is partially correct. (B) It is highly admirable.
(C) It is controversial though persuasive. (D) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.
64. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
(A) describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic backgrounds preserved their culture in the
united States
(B) take advantage of social research on the experiences of colonists who migrated to colonial
North America specifically to acquire land
(C) investigate the lives of Europeans before they came to colonial North America to determine
more adequately their motivations for migrating
(D) relate the experience of the migrants to the political values that eventually shaped the
character of the United States
According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed more than two
billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep
beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems
were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration
of wet sedimentary rocks.
The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth's surface and were found
because they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting
methods. Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not
yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression.
The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and
pinpoint the position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial
images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the
magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive
chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization.
However, none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are
applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must
therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most likely to be
mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take
into account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits
and from theories of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to identify those
geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and
then tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.
66. According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that are widely used today are based on
which of the following facts?
(A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression
(B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface.
(C) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are
found in regions difficult to reach.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are
unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of gold.
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67. The theory mentioned in lines I of the passage, relates to the conceptual models
Since 2002
discussed in the passage in which of the following ways?
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
models that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact
mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein
systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a
basis for correcting current conceptual models.
68. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids
(B) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos
69. Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information
in the passage?
(A) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed
to locate buried mineralization.
(B) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original
gold rushes and the present.
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utility of simple prospecting methods as a
source of new discoveries of gold deposits.
70. The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers
who wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold?
(A) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration
(B) Surveying several sites known to have been formed more than two billion years ago
(C) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area
71. According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that
such systems
(A) originated in molten granite-like bodies
(B) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally, have surface expression
72. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely used methods
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
In an attempt to improve the overall performance of clerical workers, many companies have
introduced computerized performance monitoring and control systems (CPMCS) that record
and report a worker's computer-driven activities. However, at least one study has shown that
such monitoring may not be having the desired effect. In the study, researchers asked
monitored clerical workers and their supervisors how assessments of productivity affected
supervisors' ratings of workers' performance. In contrast to unmonitored workers doing the
same work, who without exception identified the most important element in their jobs as
customer service, the monitored workers and their supervisors all responded that productivity
was the critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested that there should have been a
strong correlation between a monitored worker's productivity and the overall rating the
worker received. However, measures of the relationship between overall rating and individual
elements of performance clearly supported the conclusion that supervisors gave considerable
weight to criteria such as attendance, accuracy, and indications of customer satisfaction.
It is possible that productivity may be a "hygiene factor"; that is, if it is too low, it will hurt the
overall rating. But the evidence suggests that beyond the point at which productivity becomes
"good enough," higher productivity per se is unlikely to improve a rating.
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DIRECTION – Answer the questions given below after reading the given passages. Since 2002
During the Victorian period, women writers measured against a social rather than a literary
ideal. Hence, it was widely thought that novels by women should be modest, religious, sensitive,
guileless, and chaste, like their authors. Many Victorian women writers took exception to this
belief, however, resisting the imposition of non-literary restrictions on their work. Publishers
soon discovered that the gentlest and most idyllic female novelists were tough-minded and
relentless when their professional integrity was at stake. Keenly aware of their artistic
responsibilities, these women writers would not make concessions to secure commercial
success.
The Brontes, George Eliot, Elizabeth Barrett Browning, and their lesser-known
contemporaries repudiated, in their professional lives, the courtesy that Victorian ladies might
exact from Victorian gentlemen. Desiring rigorous and impartial criticism, most women
writers did not wish reviewers to be kind to them if kindness meant overlooking their literary
weaknesses or flattering them on their accomplishments simply because of their sex. They had
expected derisive reviews; instead, they found themselves confronted with generous criticism,
which they considered condescending. Elizabeth Barrett Browning labelled it ―the comparative
respect which means... absolute scorn.‖
For their part, Victorian critics were virtually obsessed with finding the place of the woman
writer so as to judge her appropriately. Many bluntly admitted that they thought Jane Eyre a
masterpiece if written by a man, shocking or disgusting if written by a woman. Moreover,
reactionary reviewers were quick to associate an independent heroine with carefully concealed
revolutionary doctrine; several considered Jane Eyre a radical feminist document, as indeed it
was. To Charlotte Bronte, who had demanded dignity and independence without any
revolutionary intent and who considered herself politically conservative, their criticism was an
affront. Such criticism bunched all women writers together rather than treating them as
individual artists.
Charlotte Bronte‘s experience served as a warning to other women writers about the
prejudices that immediately associated them with feminists and others thought to be political
radicals. Irritated, and anxious to detach themselves from a group stereotype, many expressed
relatively conservative views on the emancipation of women (except on the subject of women‘s
education) and stressed their own domestic accomplishments. However, in identifying
themselves with women who had chosen the traditional career path of marriage and
motherhood, these writers encountered still another threat to their creativity. Victorian
prudery rendered virtually all experience that was uniquely feminine unprintable. No
nineteenth-century woman dared to describe childbirth, much less her sexual passion. Men
could not write about their sexual experiences either, but they could write about sport,
business, crime, and war—all activities from which women were barred. Small wonder no
woman produced a novel like War and Peace. What is amazing is the sheer volume of first-rate
prose and poetry that Victorian women did write.
119. Which Indian state is the first to set up a Gene Bank Project?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra (C) Telangana (D) West Bengal
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (Q. 120 – 125)
A small software firm has four offices , numbered 1, 2, 3, and 4. Each of its offices has exactly one
printer. Each of these eight machines was bought in either 1987, 1988, or 1989. The eight machines
were b ought in a manner consistent with the following conditions:
I. The computer in each office was bought either in an earlier year than or in the same year as the
printer in that office.
II. The computer in office 2 and the printer in office 1 were bought in the same year.
III. The computer in office 3 and the printer in office 4 were bought in the same year.
IV. The computer in office 2 and the computer in office 3 were bought in different years.
V. The computer in office 1 and the printer in office 3 were bought in 1988.
120. Suppose that the computer in office 2 and the computer in office 3 had been bought in the same
year as each other. If all of the other conditions remained the same, then which one of the
following machines could have been bought in 1989?
(A) the printer in office 1 (B) the computer in office 2
(C) the computer in office 4 (D) the printer in office 2
121. If the computer in office 3 was bought in 1988, then which one of the following statements could be
true?
(A) The computer in office 4 was bought in 1987.
(B) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1988.
(C) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987.
(D) The printer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
122. If the computer in office 4 was bought in 1988, then which one of the following statements must be
true?
(A) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1988.
(B) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
(C) The printer in office 1 was bought in 19889
(D) The computer in office 3 was bought in 1987.
123. If as few of the eight machines as possible were bight in 1987, then what is the exact number of
machines that were bought in 1987?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (C) 3
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124. Which one of the following statements could be true?
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(A) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1987.
(B) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987
(C) The computer in office 3 was bought in 1989.
(D) The printer in office 4 was bought in 19888.
125. If the computer in office 3 was bought in an earlier year than the printer in office 3 was, then
which one of the following statements could be true?
(A) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987.
(B)The computer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
(C) The computer in office 4 was bought in 1988.
(D) The printer in office 4 was bought in 1989.
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (Q. 126 – 132)
Exactly six trade representatives negotiate a treaty: K, L, M, N, O, P. There are exactly six chairs
evenly spaced around a circular table. The chairs are numbered 1 through 6, with successively
numbered chairs next to each other and chair number 1 next to chair number 6. Each chair is
occupied by exactly one of the representatives. The following conditions apply:
I. P sits immediately next to N.
II. L sits immediately next to M, N, or both.
III. K does not sit immediately next to M.
IV. If O sits immediately next to P, O does not sit immediately next to M.
135. If the person sitting to the immediate right of Krishna is wearing a blue colored T-shirt, then that
person is:
(A) Laila (B) Heer
(C) Either Heer or Laila (D) Either Laila or Radha
136. Which 2 people are sitting adjacent to the male wearing the Blue T-shirt?
(A) Heer & Laila (B) Laila & Sita
(C) Sita & Radha (D) Radha & Heer
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (Q. 137 – 139)
Ten students Alex, Bryan, Charlie, Deepak, Elwin, Frank, George, Harish, Ian and Joseph are the
only participants in an inter-college competition. They are all from three different colleges viz.
Harvard, Stanford and Oxford. The number of participants from no two colleges is the same.
The following additional information is known:
I. Exactly two of Bryan, Elwin and George are from Harvard.
II. Frank and Alex are from different colleges and neither of them is from a college from where
the maximum participants are.
III. Charlie and Ian are from the same college.
IV. Derek, Harish and Joseph are from three different colleges.
V. Harish is from Stanford and Derek is from the same college as Alex.
137. If Joseph and Bryan are from different colleges, which of the below statements is definitely true?
(A) Elwin and Ian are from the same college.
(B) Bryan and Alex are from Oxford.
(C) Bryan is from the same college as Harish.
(D) None of the above
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138. Which of these students cannot be from the college from where the least number of participants
are? Since 2002
(A) Frank (B) Joseph (C) Derek (D) Alex
139. Which two of these are definitely from two different colleges?
(A) Elwin and Frank (B) Ian and Derek
(C) Bryan and Alex (D) George and Harish
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (Q. 140 – 143)
Four friends – A, B, C and D – play a game which involves money. They all start with different
amounts, and at the end of 4 rounds, they end up with Rs. 1024 each. The results of each round
are as given below:
144. If there are only five upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the
tournament, then who could be the lowest seeded player winning the tournament?
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 63
145. If one of the matches was between the players seeded 23 and 46, then one of the matches in the
tournament can be between players seeded
(A) 6 and 18 (B) 5 and 51 (C) 9 and 13 (D) 17 and 15
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146. Who could be the lowest seeded player facing the player seeded 12 in the finals? Since 2002
(A) 63 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 62
147. If the player seeded 43 won the tournament, then which of the following players cannot be the
runner-up?
(A) Player seeded 44 (B) Player seeded 45
(C) Player seeded 36 (D) Player seeded 46
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Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below:
Since 2002
(Q 152 - 155)
Alpi is a 2 – year kid who likes to play with her 5 different toys A, B, C, D and E. She has exactly
one toy of each kind. She played for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day
she played with at least one toy. The duration (in minutes) for which she played with each of the
toys is given below:
Toy A B C D E
Duration 1 2 3 4 5
The bar graph shows the total duration (in minutes) for which she played with the toys for seven
days. All the seven days are disguised as D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D6, and D7 (i.e. not necessarily in the
order from Monday to Sunday).
12
10
8
Duration (in min)
0
D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7
She plays with exactly one toy at a time and does not play with the same toy in any two consecutive
days. Further, she does not play with the same toy more than once in any day.
She played for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days
The duration for which she played on Saturday was half of the duration for which she played on
Sunday.
On Monday she played for 3 minutes more than she did on Wednesday, and the day on which she
played for the least duration was not Tuesday.
The day she played for 6 minutes comes before the day she played for 10 minutes in the week
152. What could be the maximum number of days she played with exactly one toy
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
153. For how many minutes did she play on Monday
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 5
154. With which toy did she play for the maximum number of times in the week
(A) B (B) C (C) None of these (D) Either B or C
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155. On how many days she played with more than 2 toys
Since 2002
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below:
(Q 156 - 158)
The table below gives some information about the points scored by Arjun in ANC (All Hestia
Chapion – ship), in each of five different mind games – Dice, Dance, Dupe, Digit and Dynasty.
Game Total Problems Problems Attempted Successful Attempts Failures Net Score
Dice 35 29
Dance 30
Dupe 35 17 6
Digit 40 11
Dynasty 45 30
It is also known that
1. For every successful attempt Arjun gets one point, for un-attempted he loses 1/6th point and for
every failure he loses 1/3rd of a point.
2. Arjun scored a total of 67 points and attempted 125 problems.
3. The number of failures of Arjun in digit is 1/6th of his total number of failures and twice his
number of failures in dance.
4. Arjun‘s net score in dance is double in Dupe.
156. What is the number of problems attempted by him in Dance.
(A) 19 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 21
157. The maximum number of failures of Arjun in any game was
(A) 14 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 12
158. What is the total number of failures of Arjun in the completion.
(A)36 (B) 35 (C) 34 (D) 33
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below: (Q 159 -
162)
In a class of 145 students, 70 like Physics , 80 like Chemistry and 90 like Mathematics Also, 20 like
Chemistry only, 30 like both Chemistry and Mathematics but not Physics and 15 like physics and
Mathematics but not Chemistry . It is also known that each of the 145 students likes at least one of
the three subjects.
In another class, all the students like Biology only, This class is merged with the previous class to
make a new class and as a result now the combined strength of the new class becomes 180. It is
also found that in the new class, some of the students from the previous class who like Chemistry
or Mathematics but not Physics started liking Biology to number of students who now like
Mathematics and Biology to number of students who like Chemistry and Biology becomes 1 : 3 : 4.
159. In the new class, if the number of students who like exactly three subjects is 24, then , how many
students like exactly only subject.
(A) 84 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85
160. In the new class, if the number of students who like Physics and Chemistry only is equal to the
number of students who like Mathematics and Biology only then , how many students like exactly
three subjects?
(A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 23 (D) 25
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161. In the new class, what could be the maximum number of students who like exactly
Since 2002
two subjects?
(A) 78 (B) 79 (C) 77 (D) 76
162. In the new class, what could be the maximum number of students who like Biology?
(A) 72 (B) 71 (C) 70 (D) 73
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below:
(Q 163 - 167)
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people.
The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G,
HA, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and II in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been
obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All
the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These
people are called his/her ―sources‖. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the
answer- keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it
is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source‘s
answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a
blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.The paper contained 200200 questions; so
the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong
answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and
has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
163. Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?
I. A, D and G II. E and H
(A) Only I (B) Both I and II (C) Neither I nor II (D) Only II
164. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) F introduced the wrong answer to question 14.
(B) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
(C) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27.
(D) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
165. Both G and H were sources to
(A) F (B) B (C) I (D) None of the nine
166. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before CC could make
his answer key?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
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167. Which one among the following must have two sources?
(A) B (B) A (C) C (D) D
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below:
(Q 168 - 170)
A fourtune teller has a unique way of predicting his customer‘s fate. He has kept three
parrorts in three different cages. Each cage also has three cards with a single digit non-zero
number inscribed on every card. No two cards have the same number and no cages contain two
cards with digits summing to ten. Further the total of the numbers on the three cards in the
first cage is greater than the second by two and the third cage by four. When a customer asks
for his prognosis, the fortune teller lets out the three parrots which randomly pick one card out
of their respective cages. Before the prognosis is made, the fortune teller totals the digits on the
three cards picked out and charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the
cards. One day a customer paid seven rupees for his prognosis.
168. Card on which digit is written is in which cage?
(A) 1 (B) Either 1 or 2 (C) 3 (D) 2
169. Which of the following combinations of three cards chosen for prognosis is impossible
(A) 5, 7, 6 (B) 5, 8, 9 (C) 7, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
170. The four sentence (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced , from a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide one the proper sequence of
order of the sentences and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer.
1. They would rather do virtuous side projects assiduously as long as these would not compel them
into doing their day jobs more honourably or reduce the profit margins.
2. They would fund a million of the buzzwordy programs rather than fundamentally question the
rules of their game or alter their own behavior to reduce the harm of the existing distorted,
inefficient and unfair rules.
3. Like the dieter who would rather do anything to lose weight than actually eat less, the business
elite would save the world through social-impact-investing and philanthro-capitalism.
4. Doing the right thing — and moving away from their win-win mentality — would involve real
sacrifice; instead, it‘s easier to focus on their pet projects and initiatives.
(A) 3421 (B) 3124 (C) 2134 (D) 3241
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Jamia Official Answer Key
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