f1 Past Papers by Acute
f1 Past Papers by Acute
Business
Time allowed: 2 hours
ALL FIFTY questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted.
Do NOT open this paper until instructed by the supervisor.
This question paper must not be removed from the examination hall.
Fundamentals Pilct Paper Kncwledge mcdule
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The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants
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ALL FIFTY questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted
Please use the Candidate Registration Sheet provided to indicate your chosen answer to each multiple choice question.
1 An organisation which restructures through a major de-layering exercise has as a result moved to a shorter scalar
chain and a narrower span of control.
Is the above statement true or false?
A True
B False
(1 mark)
2 Which of the following is the main function of marketing?
A To maximise sales volume
B To identify and anticipate customer needs
C To persuade potential consumers to convert latent demand into expenditure
D To identify suitable outlets for goods and services supplied
(2 marks)
3 Which one of the following has become an established best practice in corporate governance in recent years?
A An increasingly prominent role for non-executive directors
B An increase in the powers of external auditors
C Greater accountability for directors who are in breach of their fiduciary duties
D A requirement for all companies to establish an internal audit function
(2 marks)
4 n a higher educaticn teaching crganisaticn an academic faculty is crganised intc ccurses and departments, where
teaching staff repcrt bcth tc ccurse prcgramme managers and tc sub|ect specialists, depending cn which ccurse
they teach and upcn their particular sub|ect specialism.
According to Charles Handys four cultural stereotypes, which of the following describes the above type of
organisational structure?
A Role
B Task
C Power
D Person
(2 marks)
5 At what stage of the planning process should a company carry out a situation analysis?
A When converting strategic objectives into tactical plans
B When formulating a mission statement
C When validating the effectiveness of plans against outcomes
D When formulating strategic objectives
(2 marks)
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6 Which one of the following is potential advantage of decentralisation?
A Greater control by senior management
B Risk reduction in relation to operational decision-making
C More accountability at lower levels
D Consistency of decision-making across the organisation
(2 marks)
7 Which one of the following is an example of a internal stakeholder?
A A shareholder
B An non-executive director
C A manager
D A supplier
(2 marks)
8 According to Mendelow, companies must pay most attention to the needs of which group of stakeholders?
A Those with little power and little interest in the company
B Those with a high level of power but little interest in the company
C Those with little power but a high level of interest in the company
D Those with a high level of power and a high level of interest in the company
(2 marks)
9 What is the responsibility of a Public Oversight Board?
A The establishment of detailed rules on internal audit procedures
B The commissioning of financial reporting standards
C The creation of legislation relating to accounting standards
D The monitoring and enforcement of legal and compliance standards
(2 marks)
10 The ageing population trend in many European countries is caused by a increasing birth rate and an increasing
mortality rate.
Is this statement true or false?
A True
B False
(1 mark)
11 Which one of the following is consistent with a governments policy objective to expand the level of economic
activity?
A An increase in taxation
B An increase in interest rates
C An increase in personal savings
D An increase in public expenditure
(2 marks)
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12 Martin is an experienced and fully trained shipbuilder, based in a western Eurcpean city. Due tc significant
eccncmic change in supply and demand ccnditicns fcr shipbuilding in Martins cwn ccuntry, the shipyard he
wcrked fcr has clcsed and he was made redundant. There was nc cther lccal demand fcr his skills within his cwn
regicn and he wculd have tc mcve tc ancther ccuntry tc cbtain a similar emplcyment, and cculd cnly find similar
wcrk lccally thrcugh undertaking at least a years retraining in a related engineering field.
Which of the following describes the type of unemployment that Martin has been affected by?
A Structural unemployment
B Cyclical unemployment
C Frictional unemployment
D Marginal unemployment
(2 marks)
13 When an organisation carries out an environmental scan, it analyses which of the following?
A Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats
B Political, economic, social and technological factors
C Strategic options and choice
D Inbound and outbound logistics
(2 marks)
14 Which of the following is data protection legislation primarily designed to protect?
A All private individuals and corporate entities on whom only regulated data is held
B All private individuals on whom only regulated data is held
C All private individuals on whom any data is held
D All private individuals and corporate entities on whom any data is held
(2 marks)
15 Which of the following types of new legislation would provide greater employment opportunities in large
companies?
A New laws on health and safety
B New laws to prevent discrimination in the workplace
C New laws making it more difficult to dismiss employees unfairly
D New laws on higher compensation for employer breaches of employment contracts
(2 marks)
16 The total level of demand in the economy is made up of consumption, ____________, government expenditure and
net gains from international trade.
Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above.
A Savings
B Taxation
C Investment
(1 mark)
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17 Which set of environmental factors does a lobby group intend to directly influence?
A Political
B Technological
C Demographic
D Economic
(2 marks)
18 Adrian is the manager cf a call centre. 0cnsultants have advised him that by recrganising his teams tc ccmplete
highly specific tasks the call centre will be able tc increase the thrcughput cf wcrk significantly, as well as
increasing the number cf sales calls made tc the public. The recrganisaticn prcpcsals are unpcpular with many
wcrkers, whc feel that their |cbs will beccme tedicus and repetitive.
The proposal to reorganise the work of the call centre utilises principles put forward by which school of
management thought?
A The human relations school
B The empirical school
C The scientific school
D The administrative school
(2 marks)
19 The original role of the accounting function was which one of the following?
A Providing management information
B Recording financial information
C Maintaining financial control
D Managing funds efficiently
(2 marks)
20 Tax avoidance is a legal activity whilst tax evasion is an illegal activity.
Is this statement true or false?
A True
B False
(1 mark)
21 The system used by a company to record sales and purchases is an example of which of the following?
A A transaction processing system.
B A management information system
C An office automation system
D A decision support system
(2 marks)
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22 The implementation of a budgetary control system in a large organisation would be the responsibility of the internal
auditor.
Is this statement true or false?
A True
B False
(1 mark)
23 Which type of organisation would have the retail prices it charges to personal consumers subject to close
scrutiny by a regulator?
A A multinational corporation
B A multi-divisional conglomerate
C A national utilities company
D A financial services provider
(2 marks)
24 The central bank has announced a 2% increase in interest rates.
This decision has the most impact on which department in a large company?
A Auditing
B Treasury
C Financial accounting
D Production
(2 marks)
25 The major purpose of the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) is to ensure consistency in ___________.
Which two words complete this sentence?
A Financial control
B Corporate reporting
C External auditing
(1 mark)
26 Farrah, Gordon, Helene and Ian work in the finance department of X Co, which has separate financial accounting
and management accounting functions. Farrah deals with payroll, the purchase ledger and sales invoicing. Gordons
duties involve inventory valuation, budgetary control and variance analysis. Helene deals with fraud prevention
and detection, and internal control. Ian carries out risk assessments, investment appraisals and assists in project
planning.
Which member of the department works in the financial accounts function?
A Farrah
B Gordon
C Helene
D Ian
(2 marks)
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27 In an economic environment of high price inflation, those who owe money will gain and those who are owed money
will lose.
Is this statement true or false?
A True
B False
(1 mark)
28 To whom is the internal auditor primarily accountable?
A The directors of the company
B The company as a separate entity
C The shareholders of the company
D The employees of the company
(2 marks)
29 Which one of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of a computerised accounting system over a manual accounting
system?
A A computerised system is more time consuming to operate
B The operating costs of a computerised system are higher
C The computerised system is more costly to implement
D A computerised system is more error prone
(2 marks)
30 0alum wcrks in the internal audit department cf Z 0c. His duties invclve the identificaticn, evaluaticn and testing
cf internal ccntrcls. He prcduces repcrts tc senicr management cn these activities.
For which type of audit is Calum responsible?
A Operational audit
B Transactions audit
C Social responsibility audit
D Systems audit
(2 marks)
31 What is the primary responsibility of the external auditor?
A To verify all the financial transactions and supporting documentation of the client
B To ensure that the clients financial statements are reasonably accurate and free from bias
C To report all financial irregularities to the shareholders of the client
D To ensure that all the clients financial statements are prepared and submitted to the relevant authorities on time
(2 marks)
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32 Which of the following are substantive tests used for in the context of external audit of financial accounts?
A To establish whether a figure is correct
B To investigate why a figure is incorrect
C To investigate whether a figure should be included
D To establish why a figure is excluded
(2 marks)
33 In the context of fraud, teeming and lading is most likely to occur in which area of operation?
A Sales
B Quality control
C Advertising and promotion
D Despatch
(2 marks)
34 In order to establish an effective internal control system that will minimise the prospect of fraud, which one of
the following should be considered first?
A Recruitment policy and checks on new personnel.
B Identification of areas of potential risk.
C Devising of appropriate sanctions for inappropriate behaviour.
D Segregation of duties in critical areas
(2 marks)
35 The leadership style that least acknowledges the contribution that subordinates have to make is ___________.
Which word correctly completes this sentence?
A Authoritarian
B Autocratic
C Assertive
(1 mark)
36 Renata has attended a leadership develcpment ccurse in which she experienced a self-analysis exercise using
the Blake and Mcutcn managerial grid. The ccurse leader infcrmed her that the results suggested that Renata
demcnstrated a 9.1 leadership style, which suggested that she is highly fccused cn achieving the cb|ectives cf
the team.
What other conclusion may be drawn in relation to Renatas leadership style?
A She maximises the involvement of her team
B She demonstrates little concern for people in the team
C She balances the needs of the team with the need to complete the task.
D She favours psychologically close managersubordinate relationships
(2 marks)
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37 Jackie leads an established team of six workers. In the last month, two have left to pursue alternative jobs and one
has commenced maternity leave. Three new staff members have joined Jackies team.
Which one of Tuckmans group stages will now occur?
A Norming
B Forming
C Performing
D Storming
(2 marks)
38 Richard is a highly enthusiastic member cf his team. An extrcvert by nature, he is curicus and ccmmunicative. He
respcnds tc new challenges pcsitively and has a capacity fcr ccntacting pecple explcring anything new. Hcwever,
his attenticn span is shcrt and he tends tc beccme less invclved in a task cnce his initial interest has passed.
According to Belbins team roles theory, Richard displays the characteristics of which of the following?
A Monitor-evaluator
B Plant
C Resource-investigator
D Company worker
(2 marks)
39 Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to monetary rewards in accordance with Herzbergs
Two-Factor theory?
A Pay increases are a powerful long-term motivator
B Inadequate monetary rewards are a powerful dissatisfier
C Monetary rewards are more important than non-monetary rewards
D Pay can never be used as a motivator
(2 marks)
40 Which one of the following is a characteristic of a team as opposed to a group?
A Members agree with other members
B Members all have equal status
C Members arrive at decisions by consensus
D Members work in cooperation
(2 marks)
41 According to Victor Vroom:
Force (or motivation) = _________ x expectancy
Which of the following words completes Vrooms equation.
A Needs
B Valence
C Opportunity
(1 mark)
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42 According to Handys shamrock organisation model, which one of the following is becoming progressively less
important in contemporary organisations?
A The permanent, full-time work force
B The part-time temporary work force
C The role of independent sub-contractors
D The role of technical support functions
(2 marks)
43 Which pattern of communication is the quickest way to send a message?
A The circle
B The chain
C The Y
D The wheel
(2 marks)
44 Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following?
A Lack of direction
B Lack of coordination
C Lack of delegation
D Lack of control
(2 marks)
45 Role playing exercises using video recording and playback would be most effective for which type of training?
A Development of selling skills
B Regulation and compliance
C Dissemination of technical knowledge
D Introduction of new processes or procedures
(2 marks)
46 In the context of marketing, the four Ps are price, place, promotion and __________.
Which word correctly completes this sentence?
A Processes
B Production
C Product
(1 mark)
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47 In relation to employee selection, which type of testing is most appropriate for assessing the depth of knowledge
of a candidate and the candidates ability to apply that knowledge?
A Intelligence testing
B Personality testing
C Competence testing
D Psychometric testing
(2 marks)
48 A company has advertised for staff who must be at least 1.88 metres tall and have been in continuous full-time
employment for at least five years.
Which of the following is the legal term for this unlawful practice?
A Direct discrimination
B Indirect discrimination
C Victimisation
D Implied discrimination.
(2 marks)
49 0lcria has the respcnsibility tc wcrk with selected management trainees in her crganisaticn. Her cb|ective is tc help
the trainees cver the medium tc lcng-term with their perscnal career develcpment. Suppcrting and enccuraging
them tc fulfil their pctential is an integral part cf her rcle. 0lcria has nc invclvement in the technical ccntent cf the
trainee managers wcrk.
Which of the following roles does Gloria fulfil?
A Buddy
B Counsellor
C Mentor
D Instructor
(2 marks)
50 Gils is conducting an appraisal interview with his assistant Jill. He initially invites Jill to talk about the job, her
aspirations, expectations and problems. He adopts a non-judgmental approach and offers suggestions and guidance.
This is an example of which approach to performance appraisal?
A Tell and sell approach
B Tell and listen approach
C Problem solving approach
D 360 degree approach
(2 marks)
End of Question Paper
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Answers
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Pilot Paper F1 Answers
Accountant in Business
1 B 26 A
2 B 27 A
3 A 28 A
4 B 29 C
5 D 30 D
6 C 31 B
7 C 32 A
8 D 33 A
9 D 34 B
10 B 35 B
11 D 36 B
12 C 37 B
13 B 38 C
14 B 39 B
15 B 40 C
16 C 41 B
17 A 42 A
18 C 43 D
19 B 44 B
20 A 45 A
21 A 46 C
22 B 47 C
23 C 48 B
24 B 49 C
25 B 50 B
Rationale for answers
1 B The span of control is concerned with the number of subordinates reporting directly to one person. The scalar chain concept
relates to the number of levels in the management structure. Therefore delayering causes a reduction in levels of management,
with each manager having more subordinates.
2 B The basic principle that underlies marketing is that it is a management process that identifies and anticipates customer needs.
The other distractors in the question refer to specific activities undertaken by a marketing function.
3 A Successive reports on corporate governance (Cadbury, Higgs, etc.) have highlighted the increasingly prominent role that non-
executive directors should take in large organisations. This has become an established best practice.
4 B The task culture is appropriate where organisations can accommodate the flexibility required to adjust management and team
structures to address the tasks that must be fulfilled. This is very common in large consultancy firms.
5 D A situation analysis is carried out when deciding on strategic objectives. The organisation will have already decided on its
mission statement and goals.
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6 C Greater accountability at lower levels will lead to greater empowerment of those taking decisions and hence greater motivation
and commitment, but will lead to less control and potentially more inconsistency.
7 C A manager is employed by the organisation and is therefore a constituent part of it. All the others are known as connected
stakeholders.
8 D The organisation must constantly be aware of the needs of stakeholders with a high level of power and the ability to influence the
organisation profoundly. Management decisions must therefore take most account of the needs of this group of stakeholders.
9 D The primary aim of a public oversight board is to eliminate or minimise any actual or potential breaches of legislative requirements
and to ensure compliance with regulations applicable to organisations within their terms of reference.
10 B The ageing population trend is caused by decreasing birth rate and a decreasing mortality rate.
11 D An increase in public expenditure should increase the level of consumer demand and hence the level of economic activity. This
would also be achieved by other measures, such as a reduction in taxation or a reduction in interest rates.
12 C Frictional unemployment arises even when there are unfilled vacancies in the economy. It is because there is never a perfect
match between the types of job available and their location with the skills of those seeking work and where they live.
13 B Any environmental scan analyses the external factors that affect an organisation, often categorised as political, economic, social
and technological factors.
14 B Data protection legislation is formulated to protect the interests of data subjects who are private individuals. Not all data is
regulated.
15 B Diversity policies are intended to reduce recruitment and selection policies and processes that enable discrimination to arise on
the basis of gender, race, lifestyle and age, therefore such policies widen access of employment.
16 C The components of effective demand in the economy are consumer spending, investment by enterprises, central and local
government expenditure and the net gains from international trade.
17 A Lobby groups are primarily established to influence political decision takers, such as the government and individual
lawmakers.
18 C Scientific management principles consider the ways in which the factors of production (land, labour, capital and the
entrepreneurial function) can be combined to maximise efficiency in production. The founding principles are based on the
work of Frederick Winslow Taylor. The reorganisation of the call centre follows these principles.
19 B The accounting function originated from the need to record transactions completely and accurately. Other requirements naturally
evolved from this at a later stage.
20 A Tax avoidance enables the individual or entity to apply legitimate rules to reduce the amount of tax payable. Tax evasion is
always based on a deliberate intent not to pay tax that is lawfully due.
21 A A transaction processing system enables all sales and purchase transactions to be recorded by volume and category.
22 B The implementation of a budgetary control system would be the responsibility of the financial controller in many organisations.
The internal auditor is not responsible for implementing systems, but is involved in monitoring the effectiveness of these
systems.
23 C Public ultilities companies often have national or local monopolies and it is therefore necessary for their pricing structures to
be subject to the scrutiny of a regulatory body.
24 B An interest rate is the price of money. The output of the treasury function is directly affected by the price of funds to the
organisation and the returns that can be made from surplus funds.
25 B The IASB aims to promote consistency in corporate reporting by creating financial reporting standards to which major businesses
are expected to adhere.
26 A Payroll, purchase ledger and sales invoicing are core functions within the responsibility of the financial accountant.
27 A Where price inflation is high the value of money reduces consistently over time. Those who owe money (debtors) therefore pay
back less capital in real terms, and interest rates seldom adjust adequately to compensate for this.
28 A The internal auditor must have the right to report and is most accountable to the highest level of management (Directors) in
the organisation. They must be free of influence from any individual manager, irrespective of seniority.
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29 C A computerised system can be costly to set up, though this disadvantage is essentially a short-term issue, as the running costs
should offset this over time. A computer system should also reduce transaction processing time and the incidence of errors.
30 D Systems audit is concerned with the effectiveness of the system itself and not the processes, activities or values of the
organisation.
31 B The external auditor has to ensure that the financial statements of the organisation truly reflect the activities of the business in
the relevant accounting period. This assessment should be independent and therefore free from subjectivity on the part of the
management of the client organisation.
32 A Substantive tests verify the accuracy of the financial information.
33 A Teeming and lading involves the theft of cash and is a type of fraud that is carried out by manipulating transactions. There
would be most potential for this fraud within the sales department where cash may be received and remitted.
34 B All control systems should be based on an assessment of areas of risk prior to the consideration of other factors.
35 B The Ashridge model identifies four styles: autocratic; authoritarian; consultative; laissez-faire (or participative). The first of these
is the least participative.
36 B The Blake and Mouton managerial grid enables leadership styles to be categorised on a nine point scale with reference to
concern for people and concern for production.
37 B With the recent departures and the new staff joining the group, it will revert to the forming stage.
38 C The words curious and explore confirm that the individual is a resource-investigator.
39 B According to Herzberg, money is a hygiene factor (or dissatisfier). Although it is a powerful short-term motivator, it is questionable
whether each individual increase in monetary reward will have a major long-term effect. According to Herzberg, A reward once
given becomes a right.
40 C Consensus implies coming to decisions that are acceptable, paying due regard to the input of all members of the team.
41 B Victor Vroom defines valence as the individuals preference for a given outcome.
42 A Handys theory suggests that full-time, permanent workers are both expensive and inflexible in comparison with other elements
of the shamrock. These other elements are part-time workers and independent contractors. A fourth leaf can be getting the
customer to do the work.
43 D The wheel facilitates transmission of the message directly to all receivers and therefore transmits most quickly.
44 B Lateral communication is horizontal. Therefore, poor quality communication will result in poor coordination between team
members.
45 A Role playing exercises are most effectively used for skills development, including sales training. Other common business
applications include effective selection interviewing and performance appraisal interviewing.
46 C Product is the fourth component of the marketing mix. This term can also relate to a service as well as tangible products.
47 C Competence testing evaluates and validates knowledge and the ability to apply these to given situations. It assesses whether
the individual can actually do specified tasks.
48 B A height restriction is a form of indirect discrimination on the grounds of gender. On average, men are taller than women.
49 C A mentor has a longer-term role than buddies, counsellors or instructors.
50 B The tell and listen approach encourages input from the individual, promoting participation the process by the appraisee.
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Managing People
PART 1
MONDAY 9 DECEMBER 2002
QUESTION PAPER
Time allowed 3 hours
This paper is divided into two sections
Section A This question is compulsory and MUST be
answered
Section B FOUR questions ONLY to be answered
P
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Section A This ONE question is compulsory and MUST be attempted
1 The supermarket chain Food is Us has decided to tackle prejudice and discrimination in all its stores by establishing
a policy applicable to all its stores. As part of this, it is challenging all employees, especially managers, to examine
their attitudes towards people of a different race, sex and ability.
The reasons for introducing the policy are threefold. Plainly there is legislation on discrimination which must be
complied with if the company is to avoid the risk of legal action against it. Also, from a marketing point of view, Food
is Us wish to be identified with its customer base by reflecting the racial diversity of the environments in which it
operates. Most positively, the company wants to develop a workforce which can reflect sufficient diversity not only to
avoid risk and to maintain its current market position, but also produce the initiatives which will develop the company
in a successful and sustained manner.
During the course of the coming year, all store employees will be expected to attend an awareness-raising training
programme. This programme is intended to help employees explore their own attitudes and highlight any prejudices
that these employees might have.
The personnel director, Anne Healey, told shop operatives we want to make all our front line employees who deal
closely with the members of the public aware of any subconscious prejudices that they might have.
It is very difficult to quantify the benefits of such specialist training, but it is one of our corporate principles that all
people are treated fairly by employees, whether they are customers or work colleagues, she added.
Initially small groups of employees will attend sessions to raise awareness. These sessions, to be held in-store, will
take place during time already set aside for staff training and development.
The new policy is to be an extension of Food is Us current equal opportunities scheme for managers. So far more
than 1500 managers have attended one day awareness-raising courses over the past 18 months.
The same course is to be revised and updated following feedback from previous participants and will also be extended
to include senior executives for the first time.
Required:
With reference to the above scenario:
(a) Equal opportunities encompass many features. For Food is Us
(i) What would be the main features of a sex discrimination policy? (10 marks)
(ii) What would be the main characteristics of a race relations policy? (6 marks)
(b) Why should an organisation like Food is Us have an equal pay policy? (6 marks)
(c) What are the key points of a disability discrimination policy? (8 marks)
(d) What is the difference between an equal opportunities policy and a managing diversity initiative within an
organisation? (10 marks)
(40 marks)
2
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Section B FOUR questions ONLY to be attempted
2 In seeking organisational success, some managers are adopting a Theory Z approach to managing.
Required:
(a) Describe the characteristics of an organisation which uses a Theory Z approach. (10 marks)
(b) Are the ideas of Theory Z universally applicable? (5 marks)
(15 marks)
3 An organisation is recruiting additional staff and has decided to compare the benefits of appointing existing internal
staff with that of appointing external candidates.
Required:
(a) Define and describe the advantages of internal promotion. (5 marks)
(b) Define and describe the advantages of external recruitment. (5 marks)
(c) Describe three factors that should be taken into account when deciding upon whether to use recruitment
consultants. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
4 Modern business organisations require trained employees, but individuals approach learning in different ways.
Required:
(a) Briefly describe the four stages in the experiential learning cycle. (4 marks)
(b) Describe the four learning styles identified by Honey and Mumford and their implications for training
programmes. (11 marks)
(15 marks)
5 Motivation is fundamental to the task of management.
Required:
(a) What is meant by the term process theory of motivation? (5 marks)
(b) What is meant by the equity theory of motivation? (5 marks)
(c) Briefly describe the response an individual might have to feelings of negative inequity. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
3 [P.T.O.
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6 A key part of an accountants job is communicating information to others.
Required:
(a) Explain the importance of good communication. (5 marks)
(b) List five possible barriers to good communication. (5 marks)
(c) Describe how these barriers to communication can be overcome. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
End of Question Paper
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Part 1 Examination Paper 1.3
Managing People December 2002 Answers
1 Overview
Organisations and businesses are made up of many individuals all working together. These individuals have different attitudes,
perceptions and learning experiences, which together with gender and personality differences can be either a good source for
developing creativity within an organisation or the root of an organisations problems.
Managers need to be aware of the many factors that affect individual differences and their own attitudes and assumptions. They
should recognise individual potential and harness talent to achieve the organisational goals.
(a) Equal Opportunities is a generic term which describes the belief that there should be an equal chance for all workers in an
organisation to apply and be selected for jobs, to be trained and promoted in employment and to have that employment
terminated fairly. Employers should only discriminate according to ability, experience and potential. All employment decisions
should be based solely on a persons ability to do the job in question; no consideration should be taken of a persons sex,
age, racial origin, disability or marital status.
(i) A Sex Discrimination Policy would look at equality in all areas of employment. Such areas would include the selection
process, opportunities for training, promotion, the provision of benefits and facilities and dismissal.
This policy would deem it wrong to make any form of discrimination within employment matters because of marital
status or sex.
The policy should cover the three main categories of sex discrimination: direct discrimination, indirect discrimination and
victimisation.
Direct discrimination incorporates the treating of a person on sexual or marital grounds less favourably than others would
be treated. One act of discrimination is sufficient and must be directed against an individual. Such as a clause in the
employment contract which states that it would be terminated on marriage.
Indirect discrimination consists in applying a term or condition applicable to both sexes but which one sex has
considerably smaller ability to comply with it than the other. Such as all applicants for a post must be six feet tall.
Victimisation is the discrimination against an individual who has brought proceedings or given evidence in another case.
Such persons should not be treated less favourably than any other individual in the same circumstances.
(ii) A race relations policy would adopt the same approach as the sex discrimination policy. However this policy would look
at racial grounds and racial groups. These phrases refer to colour, race, nationality or other ethnic or national origins.
The same three categories of direct and indirect discrimination and victimisation can be used.
(b) An equal pay policy means that a woman is entitled to identical pay with men and vice versa in respect of like work or work
that is rated as equivalent or equal value to that of a man in the same employment.
Like work means work of a broadly similar nature where differences are not of a practical nature. Work rated as equivalent
requires equal pay. This is when work has been evaluated and graded to be equivalent as other work in relation to effort, skill
and decision-making. Work of equal value is that of a womans to that of a mans in the same organisation.
This should apply equally to men and women.
In addition to any statutory equal pay policy and indeed social responsibility toward its workforce, Food is Us would benefit
from an equal pay policy in other ways. It would avoid the costs and poor publicity that might arise from legal action brought
to enforce the law would be important for a business of this size and profile. In addtion it would project a caring image to its
diverse customer base and in terms of good people management, attract the best employees from a wider range of sources
and with more diverse characteristics, and help build its customer base to include a wider constituency.
(c) A disability discrimination policy should contain the following key points:
a disabled person is defined as a person who has a physical or mental impairment that has a substantial and long-term,
more than 12 months, adverse effect on his/her ability to carry out normal day to day activities. Severe disfigurement is
included, as are progressive conditions such as HIV even though the current effect may not be substantial.
the effect includes mobility, manual dexterity, physical co-ordination, and lack of ability to lift or speak, hear, see,
remember, concentrate, learn or understand or to perceive the risk of physical danger.
the policy should also make it clear that it is wrong to discriminate against disabled people in the interviewing and
selection process, for promotion, transfer or training and by dismissal.
the employer has the duty to make reasonable adjustments to the physical features of the workplace where they
constitute a hazard to the disabled person.
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(d) Equal Opportunities and Managing Diversity
There is a new generation of managers within organisations who regard the quality of their people as the distinguishing feature
of a successful organisation.
People are the single sustainable source of competitive advantage. Nurturing high performance through the development of
people is essential if organisations are to remain viable and competitive.
The promotion of equal opportunities has made good business sense. Equal opportunities has been promoted as a key
component of good management as well as being legally required, socially desirable and morally right.
Managing diversity expands the horizons beyond equality issues and builds on recognised approaches to equal opportunities.
It adds new impetus to the development of equal opportunities and the creation of an environment in which enhanced
contributions from all employees will work to the advantage of business, people themselves and society more generally.
It offers an opportunity for organisations to develop a workforce to meet their business goals and to improve approaches to
customer care.
Managing diversity is about having the right person for the job regardless of sex, colour or religion. Essentially the management
of diversity is a quality assurance approach. It helps identify hidden organisational barriers which make it more difficult for
people who are perceived as being different from the majority of their colleagues to succeed and develop careers.
It also helps to effect cultural change and to create an environment in which people from all backgrounds can work together
harmoniously. The management of diversity combats prejudice, stereotyping, harassment and undignified behaviour.
2 Overview
In the search for organisational success, many business organisations have sought to adopt what appear to be successful Japanese
management methods. The leading theorist in this field is William Ouchi, who, drawing on earlier work, has described the Japanese
approach to management as Theory Z.
(a) William Ouchi, a Japanese American, has concerned himself with comparing Japanese management techniques with
American. Ouchi uses the term Theory Z for firms which use Japanese methods adapted to the Western system. Such
organisations display certain characteristics:
workers and managers trust their superiors
a much longer time horizon is the norm; the idea of short-term profit is rejected in favour of long-term growth
there is a team approach. Departments see their position within the organisation as a whole
a caring, paternal management unhampered by unions, demarcation or professional prejudices
generalised training. Managers learn the business, not just parts of it
a flexible organisation structure
collective values and company wide rewards
slow, but known promotion
lifelong employment.
(b) Theory Z requires an emphasis on interpersonal skills and group and team working; decisions are based on consensus, but,
unlike in Japan from where the idea originates, responsibility remains with the individual.
Trust and informal relationships are the keystone of Theory Z organisations, even though the formal hierarchy and
organisational traditional structure remain.
It is often compared to Macgregors Theory Y approach in that it is seen as a more caring, sensitive and effective way of
achieving organisational success.
The theory is dependent upon the demands of the organisational situation. Some organisations, as a consequence of their
product or service do not provide a suitable environment for the use of motivational techniques associated with Theory Z.
Its strength lies in the fact that because of improved standards of education and changed social and political values, many
employees have wider expectations from the workplace and expect to be consulted and to participate.
The application of Theory Z will therefore depend upon:
the organisational culture, structure and objectives
the procedures and practices involved in the organisation
the technology, environment and product or service
the organisations history and attitude
the level of satisfaction that already exists in an individuals task or role.
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3 Overview
Recruitment of staff, especially if large numbers are involved, may be time consuming and a drain on resources. Additionally, the
expertise may not exist within the organisation, requiring the organisation to seek suitable candidates outside.
(a) Internal promotion describes the situation where an organisation has an explicit policy to promote from within and where
there is a clear and transparent career structure. This is typical of many management and administrative staff and of certain
sectors of the economy such as the public services.
The advantages of internal promotion:
it acts as a source of motivation and provides good general morale amongst employees
staff seeking promotion are known to the employer
inexpensive in terms of time and money
training and induction costs are minimised
further training can be product and organisational specific
the culture of the organisation is understood by the individual
illustrates the organisations commitment to encouraging the staff
the individual will already be familiar with the other members of the organisation.
(b) External recruitment describes the situation where the organisation decides to recruit someone from outside the organisation
to fill a staff vacancy.
The advantages of external recruitment:
may be essential if particular skills or expertise are not available within the organisation
is necessary to restore staffing levels or where an organisation urgently needs new employees
can bring new ideas and novel approaches to the organisation and to the specific task
provide experience and work methods from other employers.
(c) Any organisation which is considering the use of external recruitment consultants would make its decision upon the following:
the availability, level and appropriateness of expertise available within the organisation and its likely effectiveness
the cost of using consultants against the cost involved in using the organisations own staff, recognising the level of the
vacancy or vacancies against the consultants fee
the particular expertise of the consultants and the appropriate experience with any particular specialised aspect of the
recruitment process
the level of expertise required of potential employees and therefore the appropriate knowledge required of the consultants
the need for impartiality; this may be of particular importance with public sector appointments, organisations with
particular needs of security or impartiality or where it is felt that an external, objective assessment is required
the time involved in the consultants needing to learn about the organisation, its requirements and the vacancy or
vacancies
if there is a ready supply of labour then consultants may be less useful, standard vacancies may be readily filled by
advertising or similar inexpensive means
the views of internal staff as to the likely effect of using outside consultants
what effect the use of consultants might have on the need to develop expertise within the organisation, the use of
consultants will not assist with developing internal organisational expertise
the likelihood of existing staff to have misgivings about the presence of, or recommendations of, outside consultants
which can lead to mistrust and rejection of any candidates recruited by the consultants.
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4 Overview
Individuals are often reluctant to undertake further learning, especially in the workplace. It is important therefore that managers
understand the way in which individuals actually learn, if any training programme is to be succesful.
(a) David Kolb suggests that learning is a series of steps based on learning from experience. He suggested that classroom learning
is false and that actual learning comes from real life experiences. Learning is experiential and comes from doing, this ensures
that learners actually solve problems.
Kolbs experiential learning cycle
concrete experiences
testing the observation
implications of and
concepts in new situation reflection
formation of abstract
concepts and generalisations
The first stage (concrete experiences) is the situation where the person is learning something new.
The second stage (observation and and reflection) is so called because the experience is being reviewed.
The third stage (concepts and generalisations) is when the experience has been accepted or rejected.
The fourth stage (concepts in new situations) is when the person calculates how and when to apply that which has been learned.
(b) HONEY AND MUMFORD have identified four learning styles.
Theorists are concerned with forming principles or how does this relate to that? They think problems through in a vertical,
step by step logical way and tend to be perfectionists who do not rest easy until things are tidy and fit into a rational scheme.
Theorists are usually detached, analytical and dedicated to rational objectivity rather than anything subjective or ambiguous.
Often known as CONCLUDING.
For them training must be:
programmed and structured
designed to allow time for analysis
provided by others who share the same preference for ideas and analysis.
Reflectors are concerned with observation and reflection or I would like time to think about this. They like to stand back and
ponder experiences and observe them from many different perspectives. They collect data, both first hand and from others,
and prefer to think about it thoroughly before coming to any conclusion. Thoughtful people, they prefer to take back seats in
meetings and discussions. Often known as REVIEWING.
Reflectors need an observational approach to training
need to work at their own pace
do not find learning easy, especially if rushed
conclusions are carefully thought out
slow, cautious and non-participative.
Activists are concerned with actual experience Whats new? Im game for anything. They involve themselves fully and
without bias in new experiences, are open minded, not sceptical and this tends to make them enthusiastic about anything
new. They are gregarious people constantly involving themselves with others but, in so doing, they seek to centre all activities
around themselves. Often known as DOING.
Activists have a practical approach to training
prefer practical problems, a dislike of theory
insist on having hands on training
enjoy participation and challenge
flexible, optimistic
tend not to prepare
are easily bored.
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Section B FOUR questions ONLY to be attempted
2 Many writers suggest that organisational success can be predicted.
Required:
Briefly describe the characteristics that according to Peters and Waterman, are common to successful
organisations.
(15 marks)
3 The selection interview remains the primary means through which organisations recruit new employees.
Required:
(a) Explain the purpose of the selection interview. (4 marks)
(b) Explain the advantages and the disadvantages of:
(i) the face to face interview; (6 marks)
(ii) the panel interview. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
4 All business organisations need trained employees, yet individuals learn in different ways.
Required:
(a) Briefly describe the four stages in Kolbs experiential learning cycle. (4 marks)
(b) Describe the four learning styles identified by Honey and Mumford and their implications for training
programmes. (11 marks)
(15 marks)
5 Motivation is fundamental to the task of management.
Required:
(a) What is meant by a content theory of motivation? (5 marks)
(b) What is meant by a process theory of motivation? (5 marks)
(c) What is meant by an equity theory of motivation? (5 marks)
(15 marks)
3 [P.T.O.
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6 Fundamental to the task of people management is communicating information to others.
Required:
(a) Explain the importance of good communication. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five barriers to good communication. (5 marks)
(c) Describe how the barriers to communication identified in (b) can be overcome. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
End of Question Paper
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Answers
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Part 1 Examination Paper 1.3
Managing People June 2007 Answers
1 (a) The scenario demonstrates Herzbergs motivation theory which explains the factors that motivate the individual by identifying
and satisfying individual needs, desires and goals. It is based on the idea that factors affecting people at work can be
separated into hygiene factors and motivation factors and is therefore often referred to as a two need system or two factor
theory. These two separate needs are the need to avoid unpleasantness and discomfort and, at the other end of the
motivational scale, the need for personal development. A shortage of those factors which positively encourage employees
(motivating factors) will cause those employees to focus on other, non-job related factors. These are the so-called hygiene
factors, illustrated in the scenario the supervisors concern with lack of facilities, work pressures, funding shortages, poor
recognition and lack of training. The most important part of this motivation theory is that the main motivating factors are not
in the environment but in the intrinsic value and satisfaction gained from the job itself. It follows therefore that the job itself
must have challenge, scope for enrichment and be of interest to the job holder. This is not the case in the scenario, where
there appears to be little or no intrinsic satisfaction from the supervisors work.
Hygiene (or maintenance) factors lead to job dissatisfaction because of the need to avoid unpleasantness. They are so called
because they can be avoided by the use of hygienic methods, that is, they can be prevented. Attention to these hygiene
factors prevents dissatisfaction but does not on its own provide motivation except in the short term. Hygiene factors are
concerned with those factors associated with, but not directly a part of, the job itself. These are mainly salary and the
perceived differences with others, job security, working conditions, the quality of management, organisational policy and
administration and interpersonal relations.
Motivators (or satisfiers) are those factors directly concerned with the satisfaction gained from the job itself, the sense of
achievement, level of recognition, the intrinsic value of the job itself, the level of responsibility, opportunities for advancement
and the status provided by the job.
Motivators lead to satisfaction because of the need for growth and a sense of self achievement. A lack of motivators leads to
over concentration on hygiene factors; that is those negative factors which can be seen and therefore form the basis of
complaint and concern. Understanding Herzbergs theory identifies the nature of intrinsic satisfaction that can be obtained
from the work itself, draws attention to job design and makes managers aware that problems of motivation may not
necessarily be directly associated with the work. Problems may often be external to the work itself.
(b) The organisation could be described by Handys role culture. This culture (and structure) is often illustrated by the Greek
temple: the roles and functions are the pillars with the management at the top. This is the traditional organisational culture
based on rules, regulations, rationality, logic and predictability often associated with medium to large manufacturing concerns
of long standing in relatively stable environments. In this culture, people describe their job by its duties, not its purpose.
(c) The structure may also be depicted as Mintzbergs machine bureaucracy. Such an organisation should be efficient, with
activities and culture based on formality and procedures, employees are process and rules oriented, have clear roles and are
not required to be innovative or imaginative. The environment is stable, predictable; this kind of organisation is slow to adapt
or respond to change and that in turn explains some of the problems at Darby Motor Company.
The structure and culture at Darby Motor Company suggest that the organisation is an inefficient bureaucracy, poorly
designed, with a lack of job descriptions, unclear lines of authority, responsibilities and role definitions within which the
supervisors undertake their duties. In addition there is a lack of training and skill development appropriate to supervisors,
especially during times of change. The organisation is paradoxically insufficiently bureaucratic; the clarity of roles, procedures
and position required for such an organisation to operate does not exist. This lies at the heart of the organisations problems.
(d) The benefits of training for the supervisors will be improved motivation accompanied by greater job satisfaction and improved
organisational performance. A matching of individual goals with those of the organisation and enhanced skills and abilities
should lead to enhanced satisfaction for the supervisors. Individual supervisors would feel valued by the organisation and
acquire new skills which will be useful in the future. The training should increase the knowledge and skills of employees,
thereby increasing opportunities and increasing the value of the organisations human resources. Importantly from the
scenario, it could lead to greater staff commitment, understanding and loyalty.
2 Although there are different approaches to predicting success, Peters and Waterman suggest that successful business organisations
display common characteristics.
They focus on the process of organising and reject the standard tools of management such as budgets, plans and detailed
forecasting and control, because these encourage a system that concentrates on negative measures. They emphasise the
importance of values to organisational success and the importance of a strong, common organisational culture, capable of
motivating employees to outstanding performance levels.
They suggest that successful businesses display eight characteristics.
A BIAS FOR ACTION. This describes the encouragement of an informal, innovative, task oriented culture that is not based on
formal systems, a system they describe as management by wandering around.
CLOSE TO THE CUSTOMER. An organisational culture based on listening to customers and being obsessed with customer
service.
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AUTONOMY AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP. This is the encouragement and fostering of innovation, the use of product champions
and practical risk taking by the organisations members. An organic system of management is developed and the associated
organisational structure is developed.
PRODUCTIVITY THROUGH PEOPLE. Peters and Waterman see people in the organisation as the basic source of quality and
overall success. The staff is encouraged and praised and a team approach is developed based on mutual trust and appropriate
motivation.
HANDS ON, VALUE DRIVEN. The values of the organisation and its objectives are known and shared by all the organisations
members. The management is involved at all levels and they encourage a system based on doing a job well.
STICK TO THE KNITTING. Peters and Waterman point to successful organisations remaining in markets and products of their
core business. The organisation grows through internally, rather than externally, generated diversification.
SIMPLE FORM, LEAN STAFF. There are no complicated organisational and management structures; organic structures and simple
product divisional forms are used.
SIMULTANEOUS LOOSE-TIGHT PROPERTIES. As far as possible, autonomy and responsibility are pushed down the organisation,
although core values such as the control of quality remain at the centre of the organisation.
These successful organisations understand the basics; thinking at all levels is encouraged, things are kept simple and chaos is
tolerated in return for results. The organisations core values are known by all and prized by all .
3 Interviews remain the main source of recruitment of new employees, even though they are regarded as unscientific and often fail
to identify suitable candidates. Proper understanding of the purpose and structure of selection interviews can alleviate many of the
problems associated with this practice.
(a) The purpose of the selection interview is clear; that is to ascertain the best possible person for the position and who will also
fit into the organisation. The individuals who conduct interviews should also ensure that the candidate clearly understands
the position on offer, the potential career prospects and that fair treatment has been provided throughout the selection process.
The interview must provide a good impression of the organisation, whether the candidate is successful or not.
(b) (i) The face to face interview is the most common form of interview. The candidate is interviewed by a single representative
of the employing organisation.
The advantages of such interviews are that they establish an understanding between the participants, are cost effective
(compared with panel interviews) and because of the more personal nature, ensure that candidates feel comfortable.
The disadvantages are that the selection relies on the views and impression of a single interviewer which can be
subjective and biased. In addition, the interviewer may be selective in questioning and it is easier for the candidate to
hide weaknesses or lack of ability.
(ii) The panel interview is commonly used for senior appointments and consists of two or more interviewers.
The advantage of such interviews is that they allow opinion and views to be developed and shared amongst the panel
members and so a more complete picture of the candidate can be developed. Thus problems or bias inherent in face to
face interviews can be removed. In addition, the panel often has the authority to reach immediate decisions and so
speed up the selection process.
The disadvantages are that panels can be difficult to control; panel members may deviate from the issues or ask
irrelevant questions. Panels can often be dominated by a strong personality who is able unduly to influence others. There
is a particular danger that panel interviews can result in disagreement amongst the panel members.
4 If training programmes are to be successful, managers need to understand that individuals learn in different ways and that learning
can be based on previous experience and be affected by the style with which individuals learn.
(a) David Kolb suggests that learning is a series of steps based on experience and argues that classroom based learning is
inefficient. Actual learning comes from real life experiences, is experiential and comes from 'doing,' this then ensures that
learners actually solve problems.
Kolbs experiential learning cycle
experience
active observation
experimentation and
reflection
abstract
concepts and generalisations
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The first stage (experience) is the situation where the person is learning something new. This may be planned learning or
accidental.
The second stage (observation and reflection) is where the significance of the experience is reviewed.
The third stage (abstract concepts and generalisations) is where the experience is reviewed and applied to other situations.
The fourth stage (active experimentation) is where the person applies the learning in similar situations, it involves creativity,
decision making and problem solving and is the creative and main developmental stage of the cycle.
(b) Honey and Mumford classify learners into four styles.
Theorists are concerned with forming principles and take an intellectual view. They think problems through in a vertical, step
by step, logical way and tend to be perfectionists who do not rest easy until things are tidy and fit into a rational scheme.
Theorists are usually detached, analytical and dedicated to rational objectivity rather than anything subjective or ambiguous.
For them training must be programmed and structured, designed to allow time for analysis and provided by others who share
the same preference for ideas and analysis.
Reflectors are concerned with observation and reflection. They stand back and ponder experiences and observe them from
many different perspectives. They collect data, both first hand and from others, and prefer to think about it thoroughly before
coming to any conclusion. Thoughtful people, they prefer to take back seats in meetings and discussions. They need an
observational approach to training, need to work at their own pace and do not find learning easy, especially if rushed.
Conclusions are carefully thought out and are slow, cautious and non-participative.
Activists are concerned with actual experience. They involve themselves fully in new experiences, are open minded, not
sceptical and tend to be enthusiastic about anything new. Gregarious and constantly involving themselves with others, they
seek to centre all activities around themselves. They have a practical approach to training, preferring practical problems, a
dislike of theory, insist on having hands-on training, enjoy participation and challenge, and are flexible, optimistic but easily
bored.
Pragmatists are concerned with deliberate testing. They are keen on trying out ideas, theories and techniques to see if they
work in practice, search out new ideas and take the opportunity to experiment with applications. They are essentially
practical, down to earth people who like making practical decisions and solving problems. They need to see a direct value
and link between training and real problems, enjoy learning new techniques and tasks, are good at finding improved ways of
doing things and aim to do things better. But they get impatient if new ideas are not reflected in practical applications.
5 Understanding motivation is fundamental to managing people. Many different theories have been presented on how management
might motivate employees. There are many different approaches and management must understand the appropriateness of each.
(a) Content theories present the question What are the things that motivate people? Content theories are also called need theories
(because they concentrate on the needs fulfilled through work) and are based on the notion that all human beings have a set
of needs or required outcomes that can be satisfied through work. The theory focuses on what arouses, maintains and
regulates good, directed behaviour and what specific individual forces motivate people. However, content theories assume
that all individuals respond to motivating factors in the same way and that consequently there is one, best way to motivate
everybody.
(b) A process theory of motivation asks the question How can people be motivated? A process theory of motivation does not
emphasise the need for fulfilment through work (as in content theory), but concentrates upon the processes through which
individuals are motivated. The theory attempts to explain how individuals start, sustain and direct behaviour and assumes
that individuals are able to select their own goals and means of achieving those goals through a process of calculation. Process
theory emphasises the importance of rewards, which are often financial in nature.
(c) Equity theory focuses on the feelings of the individual and how fairly they feel they have been treated in comparison with
treatment received by others. It is sometimes referred to as exchange theory; individuals expect certain outcomes in exchange
for certain efforts and contribution to the organisation. When an individual perceives that his or her efforts are equal to others
and the rewards are the same, then equity exists. If the perception is that the efforts and rewards of one person are unequal
to others, then there is inequity which develops into other issues.
6 Clear and concise communication and the consequences of poor communication need to be understood by management. Poor
communication can lead to ineffective control, poor co-ordination and often organisational failure.
(a) Good communication is important because it ensures that individuals know what is expected of them. In addition, it leads to
co-ordination within the organisation, improves control of the organisations plans, procedures and staff and ensures that the
instructions of management are understood. Team and group cohesiveness is encouraged and good communication can lead
to the reduction of stress, remove bias and distortion. Secrecy and misunderstanding are reduced or removed, information is
received by appropriate persons and conflict in the workplace is reduced.
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(b) Barriers to communication are many, but the main barriers include the personal background of the persons communicating,
language differences, different education levels and the use of jargon. Noise in communication (that is the message confused
by extraneous matters) is often a serious but understated communication barrier as is the perception of individuals. Conflict
within the organisation, communication overload (too much information being communicated at once), problems of distance
and simple basic misunderstanding or accidental or deliberate distortion of information can all act as communication barriers.
(c) Communication barriers can be overcome by consideration of the needs and understanding of recipients, careful and clear
reporting at all levels and expressing information clearly and concisely. Avoiding the use of jargon, professional terms or
abbreviations is important, as is using more than one communications system if appropriate. The encouraging of dialogue
rather than monologue reduces barriers, as does ensuring that there are as few links as possible in the communication chain.
Above all, ensuring feedback will assist with overcoming communication barriers.
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Part 1 Examination Paper 1.3
Managing People June 2007 Marking Scheme
Marks
1 (a) Explanation of Herzbergs Theory and relevance to the scenario. Up to 10 marks
(Maximum for part (a) 10 marks)
(b) Description of Handys organisational culture (Role). Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (b) 5 marks)
(c) Description of Mintzbergs machine bureaucracy and recognition of the inappropriate structure and culture that explain the
supervisors attitude. Up to 15 marks
(Maximum for part (c) 15 marks)
(d) Explanation of ways to resolve the problems. Up to 10 marks
(Maximum for part (d) 10 marks)
(Total for question 40 marks)
2 Brief description of the characteristics. Up to 15 marks
(Total for question 15 marks)
3 (a) Explanation of the purpose of the selection interview. Up to 4 marks
(Maximum for part (a) 4 marks)
(b) Advantages and disadvantages of:
(i) the face to face interview. Up to 6 marks
(ii) the panel interview. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (b) 11 marks)
(Total for question 15 marks)
4 (a) Brief description of the four stages in the experiential learning cycle. Up to 4 marks
(Maximum for part (a) 4 marks)
(b) Description of the learning style and their implications for training programmes. Up to 11 marks
(Maximum for part (b) 11 marks)
(Total for question 15 marks)
5 (a) Meaning of content theory. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (a) 5 marks)
(b) Meaning of process theory. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (b) 5 marks)
(c) Meaning of equity theory. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (c) 5 marks)
(Total for question 15 marks)
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Marks
6 (a) Brief explanation of the importance of good communication. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (a) 5 marks)
(b) Brief explanation of five barriers to communication.
(One mark per point) Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (b) 5 marks)
(c) Brief description of overcoming barriers. Up to 5 marks
(Maximum for part (c) 5 marks)
(Total for question 15 marks)
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