Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

I B PS CLERK X I V PRELI M S M ODEL TEST- 4

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
DIRECTION (1-4): In each of the questions given below, a correct and meaningful

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sentence has been divided into four phrases. These phrases may or may not be
placed at their correct positions. You are required to choose the correct
rearrangement of the given phrases to form a grammatically correct and
contextually meaningful sentence. If the given phrases are placed correctly, then
choose option (5) as your response.
1.
ha
P) over the last week you’ve likely
Q) recounted on social media
R) seen atrocities from the Hamas

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S) attack on Israel, and Israel’s response,
d
1) QRPS 2) SRQP 3) RSPQ 4) PRSQ 5) RQPS
2. P) is an increasing likelihood that
Q) as the war plays out, there
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R) will be manipulated or completely fabricated information

S) some of what is seen on your social feeds
1) QPSR 2) PSQR 3) QSRP 4) SQPR 5) RQPS
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3. P) use in traditional Chinese medicine
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Q) gallbladders of living bears for

R) system designed to extract bile from the
S) bear bile farming is a cruel farming
1) PRQS 2) RSPQ 3) SQPR 4) QPSR 5) SRQP
4. P) smart note tracker or smart pen
Q) a helpful device like a
C
R) is used for taking easy and
S) fast notes of everything
1) RQSP` 2) QPRS 3) QRPS 4) SQRP 5) QPSR
DIRECTION (5-8): In the sentences given below, four words have been highlighted
and placed in a sentence. Identify the correct sequence of the words in the
sentence. Identify the correct sequence and mark that option as your answer.
5. And Sunday is I Love Lucy Day, phenom (A) the anniversary of the show’s 1951
premiere(B), and offering(C) a chance to celebrate the comedic marking (D) that
was Lucille Ball.
1) D-A 2) C-A 3) D-B 4) D-C 5) C-B
6. The secretary-general pointed (A) out that the shipment of grain and food supply
(B) into world markets will help bridge the global food stocks (C) gap and reduce
pressure (D) on high prices.
1) D-A 2) C-A 3) B-A 4) D-C 5) C-B
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

7. In the motion (A) of science(B), astronomers studied(C) the beginnings (D) of the
Sun, the Moon, the planets, and the stars.
1) C-B 2) D-C 3) C-A 4) D-A 5) B-A
8. Despite an increase in the number of private (A) players in higher education,
including (B) those whose programmes have allurement (C) with a foreign
university, the affiliation (D) and charm of going abroad continues to rise steadily.
1) D-A 2) C-A 3) C-B 4) D-C 5) B-A
DIRECTION (9-12): In the following question, sentences are given with four words
in bold. The given words in bold may or may not be correctly spelled. The incorrectly

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spelled word will be your answer. If all the words are correct then select ‘ All are
correct’ as your answer.
9. They discovered(A) patterns(B) in the motion (C) of these objects(D).
1) discovered 2) patterns 3) All are correct 4) motion 5) objects
10. But since the heavens(A) were the abode(B) of the gods, when something unusual
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(C) happened in the sky, it seemed to presage something momentos(D) or even
terrible on Earth.
1) heavens 2) abode 3) momentos 4) unusual 5) All are correct.
11. The first assemption (A) is that the planets(B) around us in the universe(C) have

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a continuous (D) effect on human(E) life.
d
1) assemption 2) planets 3) All are correct 4) universe 5) continuous
12. The autunomy(A) of those countries(B) was recognized (C) simultaneously with
their loyalty(D) to the British Crown (E).
ee

1) autunomy 2) countrie 3) recognized 4) loyalt 5) All are correct.

DIRECTION (13-16): Two columns are given with few sentences/phrases in each
which are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them in the best
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possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose the best possible
combination as your answer accordingly from the options to form a correct, coherent
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sentence.
13. Column I
A. On Friday the Sydney Opera House
B. Friday also marks 50 years since an event
C. E-books reached the mainstream.
Column II
D. in the late 1990s.
C
E. celebrates its 50th birthday.
F. known as the “Saturday Night Massacre.”
1) B-E 2) D-C & A-E 3) C-E, B-D & A-F 4) A-D & C-F 5) B-E
14. Column I
A. After all, a book—electronic or not—is simply
B. And our ancestors were as eager to
C. In Mesopotamia, in the 3rd millennium BCE,
Column II
D. a mechanism for making written information portable.
E. various ancient peoples began scribbling on small tablets that were several
inches long. C
F. take their reading on the go as we are.
1) A-D 2) B-E 3) C-F 4) A-F 5) C-D

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

15. Column-I
A) Assam and its neighbouring states received very high
B) The state of Arunachal received excess rainfall of 32 per cent,
C) Most of the largely affected districts were also
Column-II
D) rainfall in the pre-monsoon and monsoon seasons so far.
E) lashed with a large excess of rainfall.
F) while Assam received rainfall of 61 percent and 107 percent respectively.

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1) B-F & C-E 2) C-D & B-F 3) C-D, B-E & A-F 4) A-F 5) B-D
16. Column-I
A) Traditionally, gold has been a consistent
B) The government is taking all steps to stem
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C) the government is raising
Column-II
D) option for investment for people.

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E) the decline of the Indian currency.
d
F) the import duty on gold in India.
1) A-E,B-D 2) A-D, B-F & C-E 3) A-D & B-E 4) B-D 5) B-F
ee

DIRECTION (17-20): Each question is divided in four parts in which one part may
or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the incorrect part as your answer. If
the sentence is true, choose “No Error”.
C
17. The astronomer Thales had already(A) predicted that a eclipse was to(B) happen
that year, and he so (C) informed the people of the Ionian Islands(D) No error(E).
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1) A 2) B 3)C 4) D 5)E
18. The Lydians and the Medes, however(A), had no such knowledge and,(B) “when
they saw night instead of day before (C)their eyes, gave over the fight.”(D) No
error(E)..
1)A 2)B 3)C 4) D 5)E
19. A few minutes later (A) his deep voice drifted back (B) down the hall as him (C)
C
discussed something with her. (D) No error (E).
1)A 2)B 3)C 4) D 5)E
20. Watching sport was (A) by far the most popular (B) activity on (C) Saturday
afternoons. (D) No error (E).
1)A 2)B 3)C 4) D 5)E
DIRECTION (21-23): Given below are sentences consisting a blank in each. Identify
the most suitable alternative among the five given that fits into the blank to make
the sentence logical and meaningful.
21. She said she could afford it but _____________I don’t think she has enough money
1) birds of a feather flock together 2) elephant in the room
3) don’t give up your day job
4) reading between the lines 5) go the extra mile

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22. Tired of_________________, she resigned and started her own company
1) as snug as a bug in a rug 2) playing second fiddle
3) yeoman’s work
4) a sword of Damocles. 5) Reads between the lines
23. Someone has _______________and tell the commissioner that his own started the
violence.
1) speak frankly and directly
2) To tackle a problem in a bold and direct fashion 3) lost his marbles,

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4) to pay through the nose 5) to bell the cat
DIRECTION (24-30): Read the passage carefully and answer the given questions
based upon that.
On January 5, 1066, Edward the Confessor, king of England, died. He had
named Harold Godwineson as his successor. However, in 1051 he had most likely
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promised the throne to William, duke of Normandy. Harold’s brother Tostig and
Harald III Hardraade, king of Norway, also coveted England’s throne. In the spring,
while English politics was in turmoil, Halley’s Comet appeared. Later that year,
Harold defeated the combined forces of Tostig and Harald on September 25 at

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Stamford Bridge but was beaten in turn by William at the Battle of Hastings in
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October. William’s successful invasion became known as the Norman Conquest
and was commemorated in a 70-meter- (230-foot-) long embroidery known as the
Bayeux Tapestry. One scene shows the comet as an omen. Halley’s Comet flies
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through the sky over concerned onlookers and a nervous Harold, with the caption
“Isti mirant stella” (Latin: “They marvel at the star”).
This total solar eclipse was seen in London and was recorded by contemporary
chronicles. William of Malmesbury said that “the sun on that day, at the sixth
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hour, shrouded his glorious face, as the poets say, in hideous darkness, agitating
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the hearts of men by an eclipse.” About this time, King Henry I of England left for
Normandy, which he also ruled. He died there in 1135, having never returned to
England. William saw the eclipse as a presage of the king’s death, saying “The
providence of God, at that time, bore reference in a wonderful manner to human
affairs: for instance, that he should embark, never to return alive.”
On his fourth voyage, Christopher Columbus and his crew were marooned
on the shores of Jamaica in 1503. The indigenous people were hospitable to
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Columbus and his crew, but they tired of the sailors’ stealing from them. After
several months of thievery, the native Jamaicans told Columbus there would be
no more food. Columbus had with him a book of astronomical tables that predicted
a lunar eclipse for February. He called a meeting with the leader of the (A)
indigenous people and told them that Columbus’s (B) God was angry with him and
unless he treated Columbus (C) and his crew better, the moon would raise red
as blood(D). The eclipse happened exactly as Columbus predicted. The indigenous
people pleaded with Columbus to restore the moon. He said he would intercede
with God. The eclipse passed, and the supplies resumed.
24. Who did Edward the Confessor name as his successor?
1) Edward the Confessor named Harold Godwineson as his successor.
2) Edward the Confessor named Christopher Columbus as his successor.
3) Edward the Confessor named Henry I as his successor.
4) Edward the Confessor named Henry II as his successor. 5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

25. Who did Edward most likely promise the throne to in 1051?
1) Edward most likely promised the throne to Henry.
2) Edward most likely promised the throne to columbus.
3) Edward most likely promised the throne to William, duke of Normandy.
4) Edward most likely promised the throne to Henry II. 5) None
26. Who saw a total solar eclipse as a presage of King Henry I of England’s death?
1) Christopher saw a total solar eclipse as a presage of King Henry I of England’s
death.

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2) William saw a total solar eclipse as a presage of King Henry I of England’s
death.
3) Richard saw a total solar eclipse as a presage of King Henry I of England’s
death.
4) Anthew saw a total solar eclipse as a presage of King Henry I of England’s
death.
5) None
ha
27. What was William’s successful invasion known as?

E
1) William’s successful invasion became known as the Norman Conquest.
2) William’s successful invasion became known as the Mardan Conquest.
d
3) William’s successful invasion became known as the Gallileo Conquest.
4) William’s successful invasion became known as the southern Conquest.
ee

5) None
28. Find the error in the given sentence.If the sentence is grammatically and
meaningfully correct then select your answer as ‘No error’ i.e option 5.
C
He called a meeting with the leader of the (A) indigenous people and told them
that Columbus’s (B) God was angry with him and unless he treated Columbus (C)
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and his crew better, the moon would raise red as blood(D).No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
29. Choose the most appropriate word which gives the similar meaning of the word
thievery as given in passage.
1) soft 2) fragile 3) burglary 4) kindle 5) oppose
30. Choose the most appropriate word which gives the opposite meaning of the word
C
coveted as given in passage.
1) Crave 2) envy 3) wanting 4) long for 5) hate
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction(31-35): What will come in place of the question mark(?) in the given
number series ?
31. 7 33 159 785 ?
1) 3911 2) 3530 3) 3614 4) 3923 5) 3781
32. 20 20.5 42 127.5 512 ?
1) 2412 2) 2350 3) 2032.5 4) 2435.5 5) 2562.5
33. 18 35 69 137 273 ?
1) 417 2) 469 3) 545 4) 355 5) 647
34. 10 13 20 33 54 ?
1) 79 2) 96 3) 85 4) 68 5) 53
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

35. 8192 4096 1024 128 8 ?

1) 0.75 2) 0.35 3) 0.15 4) 0.55 5) 0.25
Direction(36-40): Refer to the following table and answer the given question :
Number of Cotton shirts sold by 6 stores in five months

Months/ Store P Store Q Store R Store S Store T Store U

Stores
January 325 311 221 242 339 325

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February 318 367 342 359 278 264
March 279 328 312 365 216 248
APRIL 348 262 259 234 315 256
May 248 296 291 283 274 218

36.
ha
What is the difference between total number of cotton shirts sold by all the given
stores, together in February and total number of cotton shirts sold by all the
given stores together in May ?

E
d
1) 298 2) 328 3) 324 4) 312 5) 318
37. What is the respective ratio between total number of cotton shirts sold by stores P
and S together in January and total number of cotton shirts sold by stores Q and
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S together in March ?
1) 9 : 11 2) 7 : 11 3) 9 : 13 4) 7 : 9 5) 11 : 3
38. Total number of cotton shirts sold by store U during all the given months together
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is what percent of the total number of cotton shirts sold by store R during all the
given months together ?
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1) 92 2) 84 3) 94 4) 96 5) 98
39. Number of cotton shirts sold by store T in January is what percent more than the
number of cotton shirts sold by the same store in March ? (Rounded off to nearest
integer)
1) 47 2) 61 3) 57 4) 49 5) 53
40. What is the average number of cotton shirts sold by all the given stores together
C
in April ?
1)267 2) 279 3) 273 4) 269 5) 271
Direction (41-53) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
question ?
41. 180% of 230 + ?% of 480 = 774
1) 80 2) 60 3) 25 4) 45 5)75
42. 1305  29 x 12 + 48 = ?
1) 448 2) 488 3) 522 4) 588 5) 540
5 2 1
43. 3 2 7  ?
8 3 3
1 1 2
1) 18 2) 17 3) 18 4) 17 5) 17
3 3 3

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3 2 4
44. 8 of 3 of 5 of ? = 1436
1) 6720 2) 7240 3) 6920 4) 7180 5) 7620
45. 784  1225  ? 2  20
1) 12 2) 7 3) 14 4) 11 5) 8
46. 4080  8  ? = 85
1) 8 2) 6 3) 17 4) 7 5) 12

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47. 85% of 420 + 42% of 850 = ?
1) 714 2) 357 3) 497 4) 512 5) 554
48. 644  43  162  4?
1) 15 2) 9 ha 3) 8 4) 7 5) 11
49. 324.25 x 16 - 122.8 x 35 = ? + 328
1) 890 2) 562 3) 486 4) 1128 5) 1218
2 2
50. (1.8) x (2.2)  0.33 = ?
1) 47.52 2) 44.75

E 3) 42.57 4) 44.72 5) 45.72

d
51. 8281 = ?
1) 103 2) 91 3) 95 4) 89 5) 85
ee

52. 19 x 13 x 5 - 51 = ?
1) 1184 2) 1284 3) 1384 4) 1234 5) 1334
53. 82% of 522 =?
C
1) 424.44 2) 418.44 3) 438.44 4) 428.04 5) 434.04
54. A principal at simple interest of 8% per annum amounts to Rs. 24,056 after 3
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years. What was the original principal ?

1) Rs. 19,400 2) Rs. 18,600 3) Rs. 18,800 4) Rs. 20,200 5) Rs. 19,200
55. If the average of 4 consecutive odd numbers is 60. What is the product of largest
and smallest number among these four numbers ?
1) 3591 2) 3521 3) 3451 4) 3627 5) 3487
56. A, B and C started a business investing Rs.19,200, Rs.12,800 and Rs.22,400
C
respectively. Out of a total profit of Rs. 51,408. What is A’s share ?
1) Rs. 18,144 2) Rs. 19,336 3)Rs. 17,948 4) Rs. 18,762 5) Rs. 17,392
57. The length of a rectangular field A is 16 m more than its breadth and its perimeter
is 144 m. What is the area of rectangular field B, if its length is 8 m more than
the length of rectangular field A and its breadth is 14 m more than the breadth of
rectangular field A ? (in m2)
1) 2364 2) 1884 3) 1986 4) 2184 5) 2232
58. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is decreased
32
by 10% the fraction thus obtained is 45 . What was the original fraction ?

9 4 7 8 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
14 7 15 15 5

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

59. A car starts running at the speed of 36 kmph. If the speed increases by 4 kmph at
the end of each hour, what will be the distance covered in 9 hours ?
1) 512 kms 2) 468 kms 3) 436kms 4) 498 kms 5) 548 kms
60. In 2021, the ratio of salary of A and salary of B was 7 : 11 respectively. In the next
year A’s salary increased by 12% and B’s salary increased by 10%. If B’s salary
became Rs. 77,440 after the increment, what was A’s salary after the increment?
1) Rs. 51,662 2) Rs. 52,882 3) Rs. 52,094 4) Rs. 50,176 5) Rs. 50,484
61. The respective ratio of 3 angles of a quadrilateral is 11 : 7 : 5. The value of the
fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 153°. What is the difference between the

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largest angle and the second smallest angle of the quadrilateral ?
1) 85° 2) 95° 3) 80° 4) 100° 5) 90o
62. If the compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2
years at 20% p.a. is Rs. 880, what is the principal amount?
ha
1) Rs. 2450 2) Rs. 1550 3) Rs. 2000 4) Rs. 2200 5) Rs. 1800
63. If in an examination. 3240 candidates appeared of which 2430 passed what is the
percentage of students who passed the exam?
1) 63 2) 79 3) 59 4) 75 5) 68
64.

E
The difference between length and breadth of a rectangular plot is 12m. If the
d
perimeter of the plot is 152m. what is its area? (In m2)
1) 1382 2) 1454 3) 1436 4) 1408 5) 1396
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65. The area of a square is 7 times of the area of a circle whose diameter is 14 cm.

How long is each side of the square? (in cm)

C
1) 36 2) 44 3) 38 4) 49 5) 27
REASONING
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Direction: (66-70) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven people work on seven different posts viz. Engineer (E), Senior Engineer
(SE), Assistant manager (AM), Manager (MG), General Manager (GM), Chief
executive officer (CEO) and Director (DR) in an organisation. The posts have been
given in increasing order of hierarchy with Engineer being the junior most position
C
and DR being the senior most position in the said organisation. It is assumed that
only the given posts exist in the said organisation.
S is senior than SE but not to CEO. There are only two persons in hierarchy
between the ones on which V and P work. U is an immediate senior to R. The
number of persons senior to Q is one more than the person junior to U where U is
junior to Q. T is not the CEO of the organisation and is not an immediate senior to
P.
66. How many people senior to ‘S’?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
67. What is the position of ‘P’ in the organization as per the given arrangement?
1) MG 2) CEO 3) GM 4) AM 5) SE
68. How many people in hierarchy between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ as per the given arrangement?
1) Five 2) Three 3) Two 4) Four 5) One

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their group as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group, which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) T-S 2) R-S 3) V-U 4) Q-U 5) P-V
70. Which of the following statement is correct as per the given arrangement?
1) Only T is senior to V
2) Only three people in hierarchy between R and Q
3) P is an immediate senior to Q 4) The position of S is MG

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5) Except third statement, remaining all the statements are correct
Direction (71-73): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding

71.
commonly known facts.
ha
Statements: Only a few Grenades are Bombs.
All Bombs are Mortars.

E
No Bomb is Pistol.
d
Conclusion I: Some Grenades are not Pistol
Conclusion II: Some Mortar is Bomb
ee

1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows

3) Either Conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
C
72. Statements: Some Rockets are bullets. No bullet is a Missile.
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Only a few missiles are Parabellum.

Conclusion I: Some Parabellum’s are not Missile’s
Conclusion II: Some Missiles are definitely not Rockets
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Only Conclusion I follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only Conclusion II follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
C
73. Statements: All Buses are Lorries. No Lorry is a Bike.
Only a few Bike’s are bicycles.
Conclusion I: Some Bicycles are Buses
Conclusion II: Some Bicycle’s are not Buses
1) Both Conclusions I and II follow 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only Conclusion I follows
5) Only Conclusion II follows
74. If all the letters in the word “HOLIDAY” are arranged as per English alphabetical
order (from left to right), and then how many letters will remain at same position
in the new word thus formed? (Note: The word formed after performing the said
operation may not necessarily form meaningful English word).
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

Direction: (75-79) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are kept one above the other in a stack.
Only one box is kept between F and D. Box E is kept immediately above box B. As
many boxes kept between box G and A as between box A and C. Box B is kept
above box D. Box A is kept immediately above box F. Box F is kept below box D. Box
G is not placed at bottom most position.
75. How many boxes are kept above box D?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five

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76. What is position of box ‘G’ from top of the stack?
1) First 2) Third 3) Fifth 4) Second 5) Fourth
77. Which box is kept at bottom of the stack as per the given arrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) D 4) B 5) C
78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
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the given arrangement and hence form a group, which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) B-G 2) A-C 3) G-E 4) F-D 5) G-A
79.

E
Which of the following statement is not false as per the given arrangement?
1) Box E is paced at bottom of the stack
d
2) Only One box is kept between box E and box D
3) Box A is kept just above box C
4) As many boxes are kept above B as below F
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5) Only four boxes are kept above box F

Direction: (80-83) Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits
carefully to answer the given question:
C
A ! 5 L @ 8 1 # M 3 $ 6 H % 2 ^ B & 4 T * 9  C 3  7 R 5 
D © 8 2 € W  1 ¥ S
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80. Which of the following is the tenth element to the right of the nineteenth element
from the right end of the given arrangement?
1) 9 2) D 3)  4) © 5) 8
81. How many such letters are there in the given arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
C
82. How many such elements are there in the given arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a letter which appears after T in the English alphabetical
order?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
83. If all the alphabets are deleted from the given arrangement, which of the following
will be the twelfth element from the left end of the given arrangement?
1) % 2) 2 3) ^ 4) B 5) &
84. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
first, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word “LOCATED” using
each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will
be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be
formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give Z as
your answer.
1. E 2) A 3) D 4) X 5) Z

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

Direction: (85-89) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven people viz. L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table
facing towards the centre. Q is sitting third to the right of R. Only two people are
sitting between O and P (either from left or right). O is an immediate neighbour of
Q. N is neither sit with M nor L. N is not an immediate neighbour of R. M and L
are not sitting each other. As many people sit between P and N as between P and
M.
Questions:

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85. How many people sit between N and L, when counted from right of N as per the
given arrangement?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
86. What is the position of ‘R’ with respect to ‘Q’?
1) Immediate left
3) Third to the left
ha 2) Second to the left
4) Fourth to the right
5) Both options 3 and 4
87.

E
Who are the immediate neighbors of M?
d
1) RO 2) LP 3) PO 4) RP 5) LO
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their group, as per
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the given arrangement hence form a group, which one of the following doesn’t
belong to that group?
1) MP 2) RL 3) OQ 4) NP 5) MR
C
89. Which one of the following statement is not correct as per the given arrangement?
Sr

1) Only two people sit between N and R (from left of R)

2) M is sitting third to the left of O
3) N and P are sitting each other
4) Q and L are immediate neighbours of O
5) Only one person sits between L and M (from left of M)
Direction: (90-92) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
questions:
Eight members are in the family.K is the mother of L. S is the mother of only
F. Z is the brother of N. P is the father in law of Z. N is the sister in law of S. L is
the brother in law of Z. B is the mother in law of S. Both L and N are not married.
90. If ‘N’ is the child of ‘U’ then how is ‘U’ related to ‘S’?
1) Father 2) Mother 3) Father in law
4) Mother in law 5) Uncle
91. If the ratio of the men and women is same then how is ‘F’ related to ‘L’?
1) Nephew 2) Niece 3) Uncle 4) Aunt 5) Mother
92. If ‘L’ has an unmarried sister then, how is that unmarried sister related to ‘Z’?
1) Niece 2) Sister in law 3) Mother
4) Sister 5) Aunt

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS CLERK -X I V PRELI M S M T- 4

Direction (93-95): In this question relationship between different elements is

shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
93. Statement: S < R > V  Y > M  G
Conclusion I: G < R Conclusion II: R  Y
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true

r’s
94. Statement: U > B  R > V  W ; C > R
Conclusion I: C > B Conclusion II: W > R
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true

Conclusion I: W  Q
ha
95. Statement: Q  S < X = D > R  F ; W  D
Conclusion II: F < W
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true

E
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Only Conclusion I is true
d
Direction: (96-100) The given question is based on the following five 3-digt numbers:
793 485 928 863 364
96. If ‘1’ is added to the each even number and 2 subtracted from each odd number
ee

then how many numbers thus formed will be completely divisible by ‘4’?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None
97. If all the digits in each number are arranged in descending order within the
C
number, which of the following will form the third highest number?
1) 793 2) 485 3) 928 4) 863 5) 364
Sr

98. If the position of first and the third digit of each of the given numbers is
interchanged within the number, which of the following will form the second
highest number?
1) 793 2) 485 3) 364 4) 928 5) 863
99. If ‘2’ is subtracted from the each digit in each of the given numbers. Then how
many numbers thus formed will a digit of the smallest number (1)?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
C
100. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second highest number is
divided by the first digit of the smallest number?
1) 1 2) 0.5 3) 0.33 4) 0.75 5) 2

KEY
1.4 2.1 3.5 4.2 5.1 6.5 7.4 8.4 9.3 10.3
SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.1 13.2 14.1 15.1 16.3 17.2 18.5 19.3 20.5
OUR RESULTS
21.4 22.2 23.5 24.1 25.3 26.2 27.1 28.4 29.3 30.5
31.1 32.5 33.3 34.3 35.5 36.5 37.1 38.1 39.3 40.2
41.5 42.4 43.2 44.4 45.2 46.2 47.1 48.5 49.2 50.1
51.2 52.1 53.4 54.1 55.1 56.1 57.4 58.4 59.2 60.4
61.5 62.3 63.4 64.4 65.2 66.3 67.4 68.2 69.3 70.5
71.5 72.3 73.5 74.3 75.3 76.2 77.5 78.1 79.4 80.4
81.3 82.2 83.3 84.5 85.3 86.5 87.4 88.1 89.5 90.3
91.1 92.2 93.1 94.4 95.5 96.5 97.4 98.2 99.3 100.1

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