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RGO Presentation
RGO Presentation
A. Psychopathology
B. Clinical Psychology
C. Abnormal Psychology
D. Psychiatry
Psychopathology – The scientific study of mental disorders.
A. Comorbidity
B. Covalence
C. Copresence
D. Coexistence
4.) This perspective is mostly concerned with individuals’
childhood experiences and unconscious behaviors.
A. Humanistic-Existentialist Perspective
B. Neuroscientific Perspective
C. Clinical Perspective
D. Psychodynamic Perspective
Perspectives in viewing abnormality:
a. Psychoanalytic Perspective
b. Humanistic-Existentialist Perspective
c. Behavioral Perspective
d. Neuroscience Perspective
e. Medical Perspective
f. Spiritistic Perspective
5.) This model states that people inherit the tendency of
having a mental disorder and that the environment triggers
the prevalence of said mental disorder.
A. Psychodynamic Model
B. Delirium Congruence Model
C. Diathesis-Stress Model
D. Behavioral Model
6.) This perspective sees abnormal behavior as a result of
improper learning or improper associations with previous
experiences.
A. Neuroscience Perspective
B. Diagnostic Perspective
C. Psychodynamic Perspective
D. Behavioral Perspective
7.) This is the axis in the multiaxial model which covers
medical conditions that may affect an individual’s mental
condition.
A. Axis I
B. Axis II
C. Axis III
D. Axis IV
Multiaxial System in the DSM-IV and DSM-IV-TR
A. Genotype
B. Physiotype
C. Phenotype
D. Personatype
Genotype – Genetic makeup of an individual
A. Axis I
B. Axis II
C. Axis III
D. Axis IV
10.) It is an action that a person feels compelled to repeat
again and again in order to alleviate anxiety.
A. Obsession
B. Compulsion
C. Hallucination
D. Reactions
11.) It is a method done during prehistoric times where a
“witch doctor” or “shaman” bores a hole in the skull of an
individual in order to release the “evil spirits” inhabiting
the individual.
A. Exorcism
B. Trephination
C. Redrum
D. Sacrificial Ceremony
12.) Characterized by extreme fear of contracting a disease
or acquiring an organic dysfunction.
A. Conversion Disorder
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
C. Organic Obsession Disorder
D. Hypochondriasis
13.) The disease associated with a “traveling uterus” that
causes havoc inside the body of a woman, thereby causing
mental dysfunction.
A. Malingering
B. Hysteria
C. Phrenitis
D. La Belle Indifference
14.) Melissa is having a hard time concentrating on her studies
because every time she sees a door being opened, she feels
compelled to close and open the door herself for exactly 4 times so
that she wouldn’t feel anxious anymore. She is having a hard time
interacting with her friends as a result and feels that this gnawing
feeling of unease is spreading to other aspects of her life. Melissa
most likely has which mental disorder?
A. Contextual Research
B. Q-Data
C. Family Studies
D. Adoption Studies
16.) The following are symptoms that help determine the
presence of a personality disorder within an individual
EXCEPT:
A. Cluster A
B. Cluster B
C. Cluster C
D. Cluster D
Personality Disorders:
A. Generalized Amnesia
B. Specific Amnesia
C. Selective Amnesia
D. Localized Amnesia
Types of Amnesia:
1. Biogenic
2. Psychogenic
Types of Amnesia (according to length of time):
1. Generalized
2. Localized
3. Specific
19.) A necessary procedure done before conducting a
psychological intervention wherein the clinician must first
inform the client about the nature of the planned intervention
and afterwards ask the permission of the client to conduct said
intervention.
A. Agreement
B. Informed Consent
C. Privacy
D. Clinical Assessment
20.) A mood state characterized by marked negative affect
and bodily symptoms of tension in which a person
apprehensively anticipates future danger or misfortune.
A. Fear
B. Apprehension
C. Anxiety
D. Anger
21.) Ana falls down to her knees after seeing her ex-
boyfriend holding hands with another man. Ana starts to
have difficulty breathing and to lose sensation in her hands.
Ana is having a:
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
B. Agoraphobia
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. Dysthymia
24.) It is a fear of crowded spaces with the inability to
escape. It is also comorbid with social anxiety disorder.
A. Trypophobia
B. Agoraphobia
C. Dysthymia
D. Acrophobia
Anxiety Disorders – Characterized by extreme anxiety,
usually triggered by specific events or situations.
Types of Anxiety Disorders:
A. Transvestism
B. Pedophilia
C. Gender Dysphoria
D. John cannot be diagnosed with a mental disorder because he is too
young.
Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
Gender Identity Disorder - Present when a person feels
trapped in a body that is the “wrong” sex, that does not
match his or her innate sense of personal identity.
Sexual Disorders:
A. Shabu
B. Marijuana
C. Amphetamines
D. Caffeine
29.) These are persistent beliefs that are simply contrary to
reality.
A. Hallucinations
B. Self-made Beliefs
C. Paranoia
D. Delusions
Hallucinations – Imagined/Fake perceptions
A. Dysthymia
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Major Depressive Disorder
D. Bipolar Disorder
Mood Disorders – characterized by experiencing one or two of
the following:
1. Depressive
2. Bipolar
Depressive:
b. Cognitive Therapy
Depressive:
A. Verbigeration
B. Incoherence
C. Echolalia
D. Neologisms
32.) This is a type of Schizophrenia characterized by
“waxy” behavior and posturing.
A. Catatonic Schizophrenia
B. Disorganized Schizophrenia
C. Residual Schizophrenia
D. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia – Disruption in the perception of the world,
thought, speech, movement, and almost every other aspect
of daily functioning.
Symptoms of Schizophrenia:
1. Delusions
2. Hallucinations
3. Disorganized Speech (echolalia, tangentiality, word salad,
neologisms, etc.)
4. Behavioral Problems
5. Withdrawal
Types of Schizophrenia:
3. Catatonic – Immobility
Types of Schizophrenia:
A. Anxiety Disorders
B. Specific Phobia
C. Panic Disorders
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
34.) Excessive fear of situations or events in nature,
especially heights, storms, and water can be classified
under which type of phobia?
A. Situational Phobia
B. Natural Environment Phobia
C. Danger Phobia
D. Blood-Injury-Injection Phobia
35.) A term related to the inability to change a particular
outcome of a certain situation because of previous
experiences.
A. Learned Helplessness
B. Agoraphobia
C. Tardive Dyskinesia
D. Catatonia
36.) Acute: Sudden Onset; ______: Slow, Progressive Onset
A. Intrepid
B. Retarded
C. Depressive
D. Insidious
37.) Involves having an IQ between 50 and 69.
3. Communication Disorders:
3. Communication Disorders:
A. Gathering
B. Hoarding
C. Bartering
D. Collecting
40.) Characterized by the presence of anxiety or “panic”
attacks comorbid with the avoidance of situations that may
induce these panic attacks.
A. Grandiose
B. Persecutory
C. Jealous
D. Erotomanic
42.) An excess of this neurotransmitter leads to
Schizophrenia.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Amygdala
43.) This neurotransmitter is involved in emotional
regulation.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
44.) The condition attributed to individuals who suffer from
both Major Depressive Disorder and Dysthymic Disorder.
A. Compound Depression
B. Severe Mood Disorder
C. Double Depression
D. Excessive Emotional Dysfunction
45.) Shara finds extreme pleasure in everything she does. She
makes up plans in her head to travel all over the world in 10
days and does not doubt for one second that she can do so. She
is most likely having a:
A. Depressive Episode
B. Hypomanic Episode
C. Manic Episode
D. Bipolar Episode
46.) The major difference between bipolar I and bipolar II
disorders.
A. Amuk
B. Shenkui
C. Taijin Kyofusho
D. Shinbyeong
48.) The preferred drug treatment for individuals with
bipolar disorders.
A. Tricyclics
B. SSRI
C. Lithium
D. MAO Inhibitors
49.) A field of psychology involving the effects of mental
processes to physical health and how it can be changed to
improve a person’s chances of physical recovery.
A. Sports Psychology
B. Personal Psychology
C. Positive Psychology
D. Health Psychology
50.) The General Adaptation Syndrome is a sequence of
reactions to sustained stress and was first described by:
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Martin Seligman
C. Hans Selye
D. Costa and McRae
51.) Involves a rapid onset of cognitive deterioration
accompanied by confusion and disorientation.
A. Delirium
B. Dementia
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Dementor
52.) When drug addicts talk about “crack,” they are
referring to which drug?
A. Meth
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. PCP
Substance-Related and Impulse-Control Disorders
Substance-Related Disorders – Involve the abuse of
substances that alter the way people think, feel, and
behave.
Substance-Related Disorders
Types of Drugs:
Types of Drugs:
Possible Interventions:
A. Dysgrafia
B. Dyscalculia
C. Dyssomnia
D. Dyslexia
54.) A woman comes to a police station in Baguio City asking for
assistance as to how or why she was able to arrive at that location
when she, in fact, has a life and a family in Manila. Upon further
investigation, it was revealed that she has had a very stressful life
back in Manila and didn’t come home one day. This individual most
likely experienced:
A. Psychogenic Amnesia
B. Dissociative Fugue
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Dementia Praecox
55.) The study of changes in abnormal behavior that occur
over time.
A. Longitudinal Psychology
B. Insidious Psychopathology
C. Developmental Psychopathology
D. Developmental Psychology
56.) What happened to the multiaxial system in the DSM V?
A. Exhibitionist
B. Voyeur
C. Pedophile
D. Necrophile
58.) It is a paraphilia wherein a person enjoys rubbing
his/her genitalia on other people in crowded areas where
there is little to no escape.
A. Exhibitionism
B. Fetishism
C. Voyeurism
D. Frotteurism
59.) A chemical substance that produces effects opposite
those of a particular neurotransmitter.
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Reverse Antagonist
D. Inverse Agonist
60.) Characteristic of schizophrenics having loose verbal
and cognitive associations. This is seen in how they
frequently jump to unrelated topics during conversations.
A. Tangentiality
B. Tardive Dyskinesia
C. Ataxia
D. Echolalia
61.) This is when the patients are aware of, or oriented to,
their identity, location, and time.
A. Informed Consent
B. Privacy
C. Oriented Times Three
D. Debriefed
62.) A method of conditioning wherein right before an
orgasm, an individual thinks of a certain stimuli in order to
condition himself to be aroused by that stimuli.
A. Paraphilia
B. Fetishistic Learning
C. Molding
D. Orgasmic Reconditioning
63.) Behavior change resulting from the person’s
expectation of change rather than from the experimental
manipulation itself.
A. Placebo
B. Papaverine
C. Conditioned Response
D. Mescaline
64.) There was a huge fire in your hometown that killed 4
people. Upon further investigation, the police concluded that
the fire was set by an individual who revealed that he “can’t
force himself to stop doing it.” This individual is showing
symptoms of:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Pyromania
C. Dysthymia
D. Paraphilia
65.) A psychiatrist says that chances for recovery from the
mental disorder is “slim” and that the person with the mental
disorder should expect to take more and more medications as
time goes by. This statement is what we call the doctor’s:
A. Diagnosis
B. Hypothesis
C. Prognosis
D. Prediction
66.) The initial period before the active stage in
schizophrenia where the individual concerned is starting to
experience the initial symptoms of schizophrenia.
A. Aura Phase
B. Depression Stage
C. Prodromal Stage
D. Pre-active Stage
67.) A psychiatrist made an error in his diagnosis. He stated in
his report that the client doesn’t have any mental disorders.
Months later, a psychologist was able to give a more accurate
assessment and concluded that the client does, in fact, have
generalized anxiety disorder. The psychiatrist’s error is an
example of:
A. A false positive
B. A true positive
C. A true negative
D. A false negative
68.) Hypochondriasis, conversion disorder, and body
dysmorphic disorders are all examples of:
A. Factitious Disorders
B. Somatization Disorders
C. Somatoform Disorders
D. Anxiety Disorders
69.) The more technical term for “sleepwalking.”
A. Insomnia
B. Dyssomnia
C. Somnambulism
D. Sleep Apnea
Eating and Sleep Disorders
Types of Eating Disorders:
4. Obesity
Types of Sleep Disorders:
3. Sleepwalking (Somnambulism)
70.) A patient begins abusing morphine 7 months after she has
a knee injury citing that she can’t handle the pain even though
repeated check-ups have shown that her knee is nearly fully
healed. This individual is experiencing symptoms of which
disorder?
A. Somatization Disorder
B. Chronic Pain Disorder
C. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D. Factitious Disorder
71.) The expectancy effect is demonstrated in which of the following situations?
A. Cordi, believing that Xanor would not help his anxiety, drinks one anyway and
observes that it actually helps him handle his anxieties better.
B. Ana, who was diagnosed with severe chronic depression, undergoes ECT and
experiences the positive effects firsthand.
C. Joe, who has had a background in drinking lithium, believed it would help him
handle his bipolar tendencies. After drinking the pills for a month, he feels that he
has become healthier and much more capable. In truth, the pills he was taking are
placebo (fake) pills.
D. Alyssa, knowing that Zoloft helps with depression, drinks it as prescribed by the
doctor. It eventually helped her cope with her depression much better.
72.) The type of delusion featuring beliefs of inflated worth,
power, knowledge, identity, or a special relationship to a
deity or famous person.
A. Erotomanic
B. Grandiose
C. Persecutory
D. Narcissistic
Types of Delusions:
A. Identity crisis
B. Death of a spouse
C. Being cheated on by a partner
D. Having a car accident
74.) A psychotherapist in your clinic gave in to temptation and had
sexual relations with one of her clients. Being the head psychologist,
the most appropriate thing to do would be to:
A. Dissociation
B. Depersonalization
C. Hallucination
D. Delusion
76.) The cause or source of a disorder.
A. Derivation
B. Etiology
C. Occurrence
D. Prevalence
77.) Who is most likely malingering among the following?
A. A client asks for a psychological evaluation stating that her neighbors’ actions
towards her caused her to be deeply depressed. You discover that she actually has
no psychological symptoms after administering multiple psychological tests.
B. When a client insists that there is nothing wrong with him even when the people
around him keep on making fun of him.
C. A high school student goes to the guidance office and cries for two hours
straight saying that her father physically hurts her at home and that she can’t
handle it anymore.
D. A father of four, while driving back home from work, makes a turn and isn’t
heard from again. Months later, he comes back and claims he does not remember
anything he did for the past few months.
Malingering – Faking bad
78.) A perceptual disturbance in which something is seen,
heard, or otherwise sensed although it is not actually
present.
A. Delusion
B. Trauma
C. Hallucination
D. Poltergeist Activity
79.) The condition wherein an individual is born with an
extra 21st chromosome. Individuals with this condition may
have intellectual disabilities.
A. Autism
B. Down Syndrome
C. Mental Retardation
D. Creudzfeldt-Jakob Disease
80.) When a client of yours threatens to kill his brother because of a
misunderstanding they had the other day, the best thing to do would
be:
A. Hold the client in the mental ward against his will to ensure the
safety of his brother.
B. Inform the authorities and the brother of the client’s intention to
kill.
C. Terminate the session and run away.
D. Prescribe drugs that would ensure the client’s inability to do such
actions.
81.) The legal concept pertaining to the inability of an
individual to fully appreciate the wrongfulness of his/her
actions.
A. Tangentiality
B. Insanity
C. Delirium Tremens
D. Jus Sanguinis
82.) People during the ancient times believed that individuals
with mental disorders were being possessed by evil spirits and
thus used methods to get rid of these evil spirits from these
individuals. The people from the ancient times thus conformed
to which model of psychopathology?
A. Ritualistic Model
B. Victoria’s Angels Model
C. Spiritistic Model
D. Ancient Model
83.) This is when a neuron reabsorbs a recently released
neurotransmitter.
A. Reabsorption
B. Reuptake
C. Reaction
D. Relapse
84.) Echolalia: Imitation of the words of another individual;
__________: Imitation of the actions of another individual
A. Echoataxia
B. Echopraxia
C. Dyslexia
D. Dyssomnia
85.) A form of mood disorder where the individuals only
experience alternating states of hypomania and dysthymia.
A. Bipolar I
B. Bipolar II
C. Cyclothymia
D. Seasonal Affective Disorder
86.) Who are more likely to commit suicide?
A. Women
B. Men
C. There are equal occurrences for both sexes.
D. Current data gathered in the Philippines cannot answer
that question.
87.) In gathering information about their clients, which of
the following strategies do clinical psychologists mostly
employ?
A. Idiographic Strategy
B. Nomothetic Strategy
C. Experimental Strategy
D. Research Strategy
Nomothetic Data – Normative data; data of a whole
population (how they compare to each other)
A. Amuk
B. Dakap
C. Taijin Kyofusho
D. Koro
89.) The current approach being used in the study of
psychopathology taking into account all possible causes of
a mental disorder.
A. Psychosocial Approach
B. Diathesis-Stress Approach
C. Biopsychosocial Approach
D. Cognitive Approach
90.) Electroconvulsive Therapy is most effective for
individuals with:
A. Physical Hypertension
B. Psychological Hypertension
C. Essential Hypertension
D. Chronic Hypertension
92.) The disorder where a normal-looking person is
obsessively preoccupied with an imagined defect on
his/her appearance.
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
B. Somatization Disorder
C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
D. Dyslexia
93.) When a person experiences only manic or only
depressive states, his/her mood disorder is characterized
as:
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Extreme
D. Progressive
94.) Mood disorder involving a cycling of episodes
corresponding to the seasons of the year.
A. Bipolar Disorder
B. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenia
D. Shizoaffective Disorder
96.) This is the most common form of hallucination.
A. Visual
B. Olfactory
C. Auditory
D. Gustatory
97.) Treatment approach that involves identifying and altering
negative thinking styles related to psychological disorders such
as depression and anxiety and replacing them with more
positive beliefs and attitudes—and, ultimately, more adaptive
behavior and coping styles.
A. Maintenance Treatment
B. Rehabilitation
C. Psychotherapy
D. Cognitive Therapy
99.) A silly and immature emotionality, a characteristic of
some types of schizophrenia.
A. Catatonia
B. Schizoaffective Disorder
C. Hebephrenia
D. Scatologia
100.) People’s irrational beliefs that other people are
seeking to do them harm.
A. Delusion
B. Paranoia
C. Fear
D. Anxiety
1.) A set of related assumptions that allows scientists to use
logical deductive reasoning to formulate testable
hypotheses.
A. Formula
B. Corollary
C. Theory
D. Complexes
2.) A classification of things according to their natural
relationships.
A. Taxonomy
B. Groupings
C. Relationships
D. Formulations
3.) This is the term used to indicate the ability of a theory to
be confirmed or disconfirmed.
A. Operational
B. Falsifiable
C. Discountable
D. Coherent
4.) “The simplest answer is usually the best answer” is a
statement related to which law?
A. Law of Coherence
B. Law of Simplicity
C. Law of Parsimony
D. The Parthenon Directive
5.) As opposed to causality, ________ holds that behavior is
seen in terms of future goals or purposes.
A. Future-orientation
B. Teleology
C. Anxiety
D. Chronology
6.) If a theory states that individuals have the ability to grow
into happy and healthy human beings, then that theory can
be classified as a/an ______ theory.
A. Pessimistic
B. Optimistic
C. Biological
D. Social
7.) The two cornerstones of Freud’s theory.
1. Id
- Pleasure-seeking
- No contact with reality
- Works according to the pleasure principle
- Completely unconscious
Three provinces of the mind:
2. Ego
- Decision-making and executive branch of the mind
- Balances the needs of the id and the superego
- Works according to the reality principle
- Conscious, preconscious, and unconscious
Three provinces of the mind:
3. Superego
- Represents the moral and ideal aspects of personality
- Has two subsystems, namely, the ego-ideal (which tells us what
to do) and the conscience (which tells us what not to do)
- Works according to the reality principle
- Preconscious, and unconscious
All motivation can be traced to sexual and aggressive
drives.
To protect itself against anxiety, the ego initiates various
defense mechanisms, the most basic of which is repression.
Defense Mechanisms:
1. O
2. A
3. PHA
4. LA
5. GE
Freud’s Stages of Development:
1. Oral
2. Anal
3. Phallic
4. Latent
5. Genital
8.) The idea that personality is mostly shaped during the
first years of childhood is a/an ______ notion.
A. Socioanalytic
B. Psychoanalytic
C. Ecological
D. Individualistic
9.) This term generally refers to emotional instability.
A. Emotionality
B. Moodiness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Neuroticism
10.) Memory is mostly associated with what level of mental
life according to Freud?
A. Unconscious
B. Preconscious
C. Conscious
D. Subliminal Consciousness
11.) According to Freud, this part of our unconscious
originates from the experiences of our early ancestors that
have been passed on to us through hundreds of
generations of repetition.
A. Phylogenetic Endowment
B. Collective Unconscious
C. Genetic Needs
D. Genetic Unconscious
12.) When an individual pushes an anxiety-filled memory
to his unconscious without him/her realizing it, this type of
defense mechanism is called:
A. Sublimation
B. Identification
C. Denial
D. Repression
13.) This works based on the Reality Principle.
A. Superego
B. Ego
C. Id
D. Alter Ego
14.) A person who gives in to his sexual urges and cheats
on his/her partner can be seen as:
A. Ego-driven
B. Id-dominated
C. Superego-dominated
D. A worthless human being
15.) When a person feels inferior compared to others or is
always guilt-ridden with regards to his/her actions, Freud
would most likely say that the individual is:
A. Ego-driven
B. Id-dominated
C. Superego-dominated
D. Anxiety-ridden
16.) Freud called this a felt, affective, unpleasant state
accompanied by a physical sensation that warns the person
against impending danger.
A. Dysthymia
B. Arrhythmia
C. Fear
D. Anxiety
17.) This stems from the conflict between the ego and the
superego and is felt when one feels that he has broken
his/her values or principles.
A. Realistic Anxiety
B. Moral Anxiety
C. Neurotic Anxiety
D. Moralistic Antagonism
18.) A defense mechanism associated with the reversion to
an earlier, more secure pattern of behavior.
A. Reaction Formation
B. Repression
C. Identification
D. Regression
19.) When a child feels no ambivalence towards the pleasurable
object (in this case, the nipple) and their needs are usually
satisfied with a minimum of frustration and anxiety, they are in
this phase in the oral stage.
Self-accusation – Self-torture
A. Social Interest
B. Gemeinschaftsgefuhl
C. Style of Life
D. Creative Power
23.) When a person strives for superiority with little or no
concern for others and his/her goals are personal and largely
motivated by exaggerated feelings of inadequacy, this indicates
the presence of:
A. Self-centeredness
B. Anxiety
C. Inferiority Complex
D. Superiority Complex
24.) According to Adler, these are people’s subjective
perceptions of reality or their expectations for the future.
A. Fictions
B. Finalisms
C. Inferiorities
D. What If’s
25.) When a man has a broken leg and is observed to be unable
to walk anymore, it’s as if the man is calling out “This is my
deformity. I cannot do manual labor.” This statement is an
example of Adler’s:
A. Unconscious
B. Teleology
C. Organ Dialect
D. Fictional Finalism
26.). A person’s innately consistent traits and attitudes
towards his/her environment is what Adler calls that
person’s:
A. Feelings of Inferiority
B. Style of Life
C. Social Interest
D. Innate Striving Force
27.) This, according to Adler, contributes to maladjustment
because it results in the individual having weak social interest
and expecting others to look after them, overprotect them, and
satisfy their needs.
A. Dynamisms
B. Complexes
C. Safeguarding Tendencies
D. Neglect
29.) This is a contributing factor to maladjustment wherein
a child feels that he/she is unloved and unwanted.
A. Depreciation
B. Accusation
C. Aggression
D. Superiority Complex
31.) A form of withdrawal wherein one psychologically
reverts to a more secure period of life. It is similar to
Freud’s concept of regression.
A. Standing Still
B. Fixation
C. Moving Backward
D. Hesitating
32.) Unlike Freud, Adler believed that _______ and not
________ influence many men and women to
overemphasize the importance of being manly.
A. Family Structure
B. Family Constellation
C. Early Recollections
D. Societal Information
34.) The positive traits of the ______ child is that he/she
tends to be realistically ambitious.
A. Second
B. Only
C. Oldest
D. Youngest
35.) According to Jung, this level of the psyche contains all
the repressed infantile memories and impulses of the
individual.
A. Id
B. Collective Unconscious
C. Conscious
D. Personal Unconscious
Analytical Psychology (Jung)
1. Introversion
2. Extraversion
Four Functions:
1. Thinking
2. Feeling
3. Sensation
4. Intuition
The two attitudes and four functions can combine to form 8 basic
types of personality:
Introverted/Extraverted Thinking
Introverted/Extraverted Feeling
Introverted/Extraverted Sensing
Introverted/Extraverted Intuiting
36.) An emotionally toned conglomeration of associated
ideas in the Personal Unconscious.
A. Images
B. Archetypes
C. Hierarchies
D. Complexes
37.) In Analytical Psychology, this is the side of personality
that people show to the world.
A. Archetype
B. Conscious
C. Persona
D. Anima
38.) Jung believed that all humans are psychologically
_________ which is why he used the terms Anima and
Animus when talking about personality.
A. Heterosexual
B. Homosexual
C. Bisexual
D. Asexual
39.) This is the archetype associated with fertility and
nourishment.
A. Self
B. Archetype
C. Complex
D. Shadow
43.) In order to achieve self-realizations according to Jung,
adaptation to the outside world is required. This process is
called ________.
A. Regression
B. Progression
C. Attitudes
D. Traits
44.) In Jung’s Psychological types, this is the attitude
distinguished by the turning outward of psychic energy.
A. Influence
B. Introversion
C. Extraversion
D. Sensing
45.) There are ___ attitudes and ____ personality functions
according to Jung.
A. One; Two
B. Three; Three
C. One; Four
D. Two; Four
46.) Art critics base their value judgments primarily on
subjective feelings and perceptions rather than objective
facts. These people can thus be classified as:
A. Introverted Feeling
B. Extraverted Feeling
C. Introverted Sensing
D. Extraverted Sensing
47.) Jung related this to “seeing around corners”.
A. Knowledge
B. Sensing
C. Feeling
D. Intuition
48.) According to Jung, youth should be a period of:
A. Obermann Principle
B. Stanley Principle
C. Liberal Principle
D. Conservative Principle
50.) This is a method of psychological testing wherein you
present the client with a single word and ask them to
answer with the first word that comes to their mind.
A. Weeks; Months
B. Years; Months
C. Months; Years
D. Months; Weeks
Object Relations Theory
- Focused on the infant’s relationship with “objects”
Ways to Reduce Anxiety:
1. Paranoid-Schizoid Position
2. Depressive Position
Types of Internalizations:
1. Secure Attachment
2. Anxious-Resistant Attachment
3. Anxious-Avoidant Attachment
Post-Freudian Theory: Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial
Development
Characterized by conflicts between Syntonic (Harmonious)
and Dystonic (Disruptive) elements
Characterized by conflicts between Syntonic (Harmonious)
and Dystonic (Disruptive) elements
This is called the interaction of opposites
Important Terminologies:
1. Ego Strength
2. Core Pathology
Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development:
Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development:
Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development:
Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development:
Karen Horney: Psychoanalytic Social Theory
The impact of a culture of competitiveness according to
Karen Horney leads to feelings of isolation
Important Terminologies:
1. Affection
2. Submissiveness
Types of Protective Devices or Defense Mechanisms:
M – Moving
A – Against
T – Towards
A – Away
Harry Stack Sullivan: Interpersonal Theory
Sullivan saw personality as an energy system (much like
Freud and Jung)
Energy can exist in two forms:
1. Malevolence
2. Intimacy
Types of Dynamisms:
3. Lust
4. Self-System
Personifications – A person’s image of themselves and
others
Types of Personifications:
1. Bad-Mother; Good-Mother
A. Objects
B. Positions
C. Phantasies
D. Defense Mechanisms
53.) When an infant fantasizes taking into his/her body the
experiences he/she had as a way of identifying with it, the
infant is doing ________.
A. Splitting
B. Introjection
C. Projective Identification
D. Projection
54.) When you run away from your best self, and you fear
success in the things that you do, you are being affected by
what Maslow would call the:
A. Jonah Complex
B. Inferiority Complex
C. Successful Retreat
D. Hill Complex
55.) When an individual prioritizes esteem needs before
love and belongingness, you can say that the person has
this condition.
A. Expressive Incompleteness
B. Reversed Hierarchy of Needs
C. Improper Priorities
D. Abnormal Reactions
56.) Self-actualizers have the following characteristic/s:
A. Expressive Behavior
B. A Type Behavior
C. Physiological Reactions
D. Coping Behaviors
58.) When a need is not satisfied and it leads to pathology
as a result, that need is said to be:
A. Instinctoid
B. Diagnostic
C. Abnormal
D. Differential
59.) This is the tendency for all matter to evolve from
simple to more complex forms.
A. Actualization Tendency
B. Formative Tendency
C. Completion Tendency
D. Congruence Tendency
Carl Rogers: Person-Centered Theory
Focused on the internal and personal experiences of
individuals; hence it is “Person-Centered”
Has two basic assumptions:
1. Conditions of Worth
2. Incongruence
Barriers to Psychological Health:
3. Defensiveness
4. Disorganization
60.) When an individual has to fulfill a condition before
he/she feels validated or adequate, that is what we call:
A. Disorganization
B. Incongruence
C. Conditional Positive Regard
D. Unconditional Positive Regard
61.) Rogerian theory is classified under:
A. Psychoanalytic Theories
B. Cognitive Theories
C. Behavioral Theories
D. Humanistic-Existentialist Theories
62.) This is the self which reflects who you objectively are.
A. Organismic Self
B. Perceived Self
C. Realistic Self
D. Truthful Self
63.) According to Rogers, in order to have an effective
therapeutic relationship with your client, you must possess
unconditional positive regard, empathy and ________.
A. Spontaneity
B. Directness
C. Clarity
D. Congruence
64.) When a client feels a disconnection between what he
wants to be and what he believes himself to be, that client
is experiencing:
A. Incontinence
B. Incompleteness
C. Incongruence
D. Lack of Direction
65.) According to Rogers, these lead to a person feeling
vulnerable, anxious, or under threat and prevent people
from experiencing unconditional positive regard.
A. Defense Mechanisms
B. Phantasies
C. Positive Self-Regard
D. Conditions of Worth
66.) Allport and McRae’s theories are classified as _______
theories.
A. Socioanalytic
B. Dispositional
C. Psychoanalytic
D. Object Relations
67.) When an individual meshes or combines different
theories together and applies them in varying degrees, that
individual is said to have a/an ______ approach.
A. Variable
B. Discontinuous
C. Eclectic
D. Ephemoral
68.) These are traits/dispositions that are peculiar to an
individual.
A. Common Traits
B. Personal Dispositions
C. Secondary Traits
D. Individual Traits
69.) These are dispositions that guide our actions but don’t
initiate them.
A. Motivational Traits
B. Stylistic Traits
C. Attitudinal Traits
D. Individual Traits
70.) These are assessment/research procedures which
stress patterns of behavior within a single individual.
A. Individual Procedures
B. Stylistic Procedures
C. Morphogenic Procedures
D. Longitudinal Procedures
71.) This is the level of personal disposition which includes
the 5 to 10 individual traits that make a person unique.
A. Cardinal Dispositions
B. Central Dispositions
C. Secondary Dispositions
D. Tertiary Dispositions
72.) __________ individuals tend to be punctual,
persevering, and well-organized.
A. Agreeable
B. Conscientious
C. Extraverted
D. Neurotic
73.) Individuals who are low on _________ tend to be
suspicious, antagonistic, and irritable of others.
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extraversion
D. Openness
74.) This is the reinforcement schedule associated with the
presentation of rewards during changing, inconsistent
intervals of time.
A. Gordon Allport
B. Abraham Maslow
C. Carl Jung
D. B. F. Skinner
76.) This classification of theories involve achieving
satisfaction in life by finding meaning and improving the
self so that you become the best person you can be.
A. Dispositional Theories
B. Psychoanalytic Theories
C. Humanistic-Existentialist Theories
D. Social Theories
77.) When a psychotherapist believes that an individual has the
capacity to make his own judgment in the sense that he/she is a
thinking individual who can weigh and assess the
consequences of different choices, that psychotherapist adheres
to what classification of psychological theory?
A. Psychodynamic Theories
B. Existential Theories
C. Behavioral Theories
D. Cognitive Theories
78.) If an individual chooses to teach a student a complex
behavior by reinforcing successive approximations of the
target behavior, that individual is employing this method:
A. Guiding
B. Exposure Therapy
C. Shaping
D. Positive Punishment
79.) This type of conditioning involves the association of an
unconditioned response with a neutral stimuli.
A. Classical Conditioning
B. Operant Conditioning
C. Shaping
D. Reinforcement
80.) Involves the presentation of an aversive stimulus in
order to lessen the occurrence of a certain behavior.
A. Negative Reinforcement
B. Shaping
C. Punishment
D. Classical Conditioning
81.) The slot machine is an example of what schedule of
reinforcement?
A. Enactive Learning
B. Observation Learning
C. Collective Learning
D. Group Learning
83.) The belief of an individual that he/she can do a
particular task properly or correctly.
A. Self-regulation
B. Self-capacity
C. Self-efficacy
D. Proxy Agency
84.) This occurs when people are able to trust another
individual to provide good services or good products.
A. Collective Agency
B. Human Agency
C. Individual Agency
D. Proxy Agency
85.) This refers to Bandura’s belief that people can and do
exercise a measure of control over their lives.
A. Human Agency
B. Proxy Agency
C. Social Capacity
D. Cognitive Capacity
86.) When we see a person similar to us succeeding in a
particular task, our belief in our abilities also increases, this
is an example of the effects of:
A. Social Persuasion
B. Social Modeling
C. Mastery Experiences
D. Roleplaying
87.) When you meet the love of your life in the MRT
completely by chance, Bandura would call this event a:
A. Fortuitous event
B. Destined event
C. Synchronized event
D. Serendipitous event
88.) Bandura believes that humans possess _______ which
is why they are able to anticipate likely outcomes of their
behaviors.
A. Intentionality
B. Forethought
C. Self-efficacy
D. Self-reactiveness
89.) These are people’s shared beliefs in their collective
power to produce desired results.
A. Proxy Agency
B. Groupthink
C. Self-Efficacy
D. Collective Efficacy
90.) The internal factors in self-regulation include self-
observation, judgmental processes, and _________.
A. Self-consistency
B. Congruence
C. Self-reaction
D. Selective activation
91.) In Filipino Psychology, this is referred to as our “sense
of propriety.”
A. Hiya
B. Kapwa
C. Pakikisama
D. Pakikibaka
92.) When Filipinos communicate with other Filipinos, we are
able to tell whether or not a person is feeling a certain way
despite saying things to the contrary. This is what Virgilio
Enriquez would call:
A. Pakikibaka
B. Pakikisama
C. Pakikitungo
D. Pakikiramdam
93.) In the Filipino culture, this is a person’s internal worth.
“Her honor from within.”
A. Puri
B. Respeto
C. Dangal
D. Dama
94.) A foreigner comes to the Philippines and interacts with one
of the natives. According to Virgilio Enriquez, the Filipino will
first classify this person as _______ before having a conversation
with him.
A. Ibang-Tao
B. Hindi-Ibang-Tao
C. Kaaway
D. Taga-labas
95.) External: Saya; Internal: _______
A. Ngiti
B. Timpi
C. Ligaya
D. Lungkot
96.) Adler’s experiences as a sickly child has influenced much
of his theory of personality. The sicknesses or disabilities that
cause a person to be maladaptive in some cases is what Adler
would call:
A. Inorganic Weakness
B. Organic Inferiority
C. Striving for Superiority
D. Creative Power
97.) What do Freud, Jung, and Adler have in common?
A. Causality
B. Teleology
C. Mechanism
D. Synchronicity
99.) The personality theorist who placed the most emphasis
on mysticism.
A. Alfred Adler
B. Carl Jung
C. Karen Horney
D. Alfred Hitchcock
100.) According to Erik Erikson, when an individual starts
to ask the question, “can I love?” he or she is most likely in
this developmental stage.
Group Test – A test that can be given to more than one person at a
time.
Ability Tests
Criterion-referenced Test
-Compares each test-taker to a criterion (a specific level of
performance).
More than 4000 years ago (earliest recorded instance)
1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
4. Ratio
Properties of Scales:
1. Magnitude
2. Equal Intervals
3. Absolute 0
Nominal Scales
-Jersey Numbers, Class Numbers, Cellphone Numbers
Ordinal Scales
-Classroom Academic Rankings, Intelligence Quotient (IQ), Player
Rankings
Examples:
Interval Scales
-Degrees Celsius and Degrees Fahrenheit
Ratio Scales
-Kelvin, Inches, Heart Rate, Pounds, Grams, Seconds, Kilometers-per-
hour (kph)
Frequency Distribution
-Shows how often a score is obtained.
Percentile Rank
-The percentage of scores that are lower than a specific
score.
-”The percentage of people that have a lower score than
you.”
Standard Deviation
-an approximation of the average deviation around the
mean.
Z-Score
-The transformed version of a score that is easier to
interpret.
T-Score
-A different type of standardized score.
Deciles
-Points that divide the frequency distribution into ten equal
parts.
Stanine
-Transforms any score into a score from 1-9
Norms
-The performance of a particular group on a particular test.
Tracking
-Tendency to stay at about the same level relative to one’s
age group.
Correlation Coefficient
-Is used to tell the magnitude and direction of a
relationship.
Scatter Diagram
-a collection of dots on a graph showing the relationship of
two factors.
Regression Line
-The best-fitting line through a scatter diagram.
Regression
-Used to make predictions about a variable (y) based on
information on another variable (x).
Regression Coefficient or Slope
-How much y changes when x increases by 1.
Intercept
-The value of y when x is zero.
Residual
-The difference between a predicted score and the actual
score.
Pearson Product Moment Correlation (Pearson r)
-Used to show the magnitude and direction of the
relationship between two variables.
-Ranges from -1 to 1.
Standard Error of Estimate
-A measure of the accuracy of prediction.
Coefficient of Determination
-Tells us how much we know about y based on x.
Coefficient of Alienation
-Tells us how much we don’t know about y based on x.
Reliability
-The amount of error in measuring.
-Consistency of scores.
Charles Spearman
-Main proponent of theories regarding reliability.
Test-Retest Reliability
-Indicates if test scores are consistent/free of error over
time.
-Obtained by giving the same test to the same sample at
two separate times.
Split-Half Reliability
-Indicates if the sample of items are properly
representative of the larger topic it is representing.
-Obtained by splitting the test in half and correlating both
halves to one another.
-Measures the internal consistency of the test items.
Spearman-Brown Formula
-Used to properly estimate the reliability of the test when
you use the split-half method.
-Adjusts the reliability of both halves of the test.
KR20 (Kuder-Richardson 20)
Alpha Coefficient
-Both are also measures of internal consistency.
Parallel Forms Reliability
-Indicates if two different forms of a test are consistent.
-Reliability is obtained by getting equivalent forms of a test
and correlating them to one another.
Inter-rater Reliability
-The consistency of scores between different raters.
Kappa
-Statistic that estimates inter-rater reliability.
How can you increase a test’s reliability?
1.) Increase the length of the test.
2.) Use Factor Analysis to divide the test into a
homogeneous subgroup of items.
3.) Use the Correction for Attenuation.
Correction for Attenuation
-Used to estimate the correlation between tests if there had
been no measurement error.
Validity
-Indicates if a test measures what it is supposed to measure.
-The evidence that proves the legitimacy of a test.
Face Validity
- The appearance that the test actually measures what it
says it measures.
Criterion Validity
- Evidence showing that a measurement can accurately
predict specific criteria.
- Has two types: Predictive and Concurrent
Concurrent Validity
- Evidence that shows that the test reflects current
performance through the use of another test.
Predictive Validity
– Evidence that shows that the test predicts future
performance through the use of another test.
Construct Validity
– Evidence showing that the test actually measures the
construct (idea) it purports to measure and nothing else.
- Has two types: Convergent and Discriminant
Convergent Validity
– Evidence that shows that there are correlations between
the test and other variables that should be related to what
the test is trying to measure.
Discriminant Validity
– Evidence that shows that the test does not include
unnecessary items and that the test measures something
different from the other tests.
Content Validity
– Evidence showing that the content of the test covers all
aspects of the theoretical construct it attempts to measure.
1.) If the results of an examination are negatively skewed,
the exam questions were likely:
A. Difficult
B. Easy
C. Biased
D. Has a wide variety in scores
2.) Standardization in testing basically refers to
________________.
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Correlation
D. Statistical Significance
5.) Which of the following is NOT considered as a
necessary procedure in conducting a psychological
assessment?
A. House Visit
B. Psychological Testing
C. Behavioral Observation
D. Interview
6.) Compared with the Army Alpha, the Army Beta test
placed more emphasis on _________.
A. Verbal Questions
B. Non-Verbal Questions
C. Covert dispositions or behaviors
D. Overt dispositions or behaviors
7.) The major advantage of converting raw scores to
standardized scores is:
A. Cronbach Alpha
B. Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR20)
C. Kappa Statistic
D. Spearman-Brown Prophecy
9.) Which of the following can be a source of measurement
error in mental ability tests?
A. Do factor analysis.
B. Construct an item pool related to the construct.
C. Establish test reliability.
D. Establish test validity.
12.) This standardized score has a mean of 50 and a
standard deviation of 10.
A. M-Score
B. Z-Score
C. T-Score
D. Percentile Rank
13.) It is a measurement device or technique used to
quantify behavior or to aid in the understanding and
prediction of behavior.
A. Items
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychological Testing
D. Psychological Test
14.) This is an expression of the percentage of people
whose score on a test measure falls below a particular raw
score or the ranking that conveys information about the
relative position of a score within a distribution of scores.
A. Decile
B. Quartile
C. Stanine
D. Percentile Rank
15.) He is credited with identifying the need to minimize
measurement errors in testing.
A. Charles Spearman
B. Francis Galton
C. Charles Darwin
D. Karl Pearson
16.) One of the most significant advantages of group testing is:
A. Correlation Statistic
B. Correlation Line
C. Regression Line
D. Reliability Line
18.) A test was given at two separate times but with the
same sample of test-takers to establish the reliability of a
test. Which method did the test-constructor employ?
A. Give her just a few of the test questions to help her understand the
test better.
B. Provide her with a copy of the test materials but only after the test so
that she could assess which areas her child can improve upon.
C. Do not provide her any of the test materials.
D. Show the contents of the test materials but only after making sure
that it is done in a strictly private location.
20.) You were asked to familiarize yourself to a generalized
intelligence test which will be used as basis for selection to
the University you are working in. You want to find out if the
intelligence test is internally consistent. What aspect of the
test are you going to look at?
A. Inter-rater Reliability
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Content Validity
D. Split-Half Reliability
21.) You then want to find out if the test provides consistent
scores over time. What kind of established reliability are
you going to look for?
A. Inter-rater Reliability
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Content Validity
D. Split-Half Reliability
22.) If a Psychometrician constructs a test and finds out that
the reliability coefficient that he obtained is not up to the
standard he wants, what can he do to increase it?
A. Speed Test
B. Aptitude Test
C. Power Test
D. Structured Achievement Test
24.) The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale is a test
measuring general mental ability. It is used to diagnose
intellectual and developmental deficiencies in young
children. This test is an example of a:
A. Achievement Test
B. Intelligence Test
C. Aptitude Test
D. Personality Test
26.) Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is an example of a/an _____
scale.
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Ordinal
27.) A researcher wishes to find out if a person’s love for food is
related to a person’s love for his/her significant other. She finds
a test measuring both of these constructs and then correlates
the obtained scores to each other. She puts dots on a Cartesian
plane to plot these scores. This graph is most likely a:
A. Bar Graph
B. Graph for Regression
C. Diagram of Correlation
D. Scatter Diagram
28.) In test construction, this is a large collection of items
from which the constructor can derive the items to be
included in the final test.
A. Item Collection
B. Item Pool
C. Derived Sources
D. Item Glossary
29.) An achievement test was administered to a group of
students. Since it was a difficult test, most of the students
got a low score. The graphical curve for the test will thus
appear to be:
A. Negatively Skewed
B. Platykurtic
C. Mesokurtic
D. Positively Skewed
30.) A teacher wants to find out how much the scores of the
students in a classroom vary from each other. The best
statistical measure for this would be:
A. Median
B. Mean
C. Z-Score
D. Standard Deviation
31.) This is the value of Y when X is 0 in a regression plot.
A. Slope
B. Intercept
C. Regression Coefficient
D. Degree of Skewness
32.) All psychological tests fundamentally depend upon the
measurement of __________.
A. Samples of Behavior
B. Mental Processes
C. Intellectual Constructs
D. Traits
33.) A company compares employees’ scores to an
established standard to determine whether or not they
deserve to stay in the company. You can thus say that their
performance assessment methods are:
A. Norm-referenced
B. Criterion-referenced
C. Standardized
D. Empirical
34.) At age 5, Kyrie has about the same height as the other
children with the same age. At age 12, Kyrie still has about
the same height as the other children her age. Height is
thus a characteristic that ____ well.
A. Synthesizes
B. Tracks
C. Correlates
D. Relativizes
35.) A person obtains a percentile rank score of 35%. This
means that he:
A. Predictive Validity
B. Concurrent Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Construct Validity
41.) Individuals who have severe mental disorders are
mostly administered these types of tests.
A. Registered Psychometrician
B. Registered Psychiatrist
C. Registered Housemaid
D. Registered Psychologist
43.) You administer a test to a group of older individuals which
measures their potential for learning in the field of medicine.
After the exam, however, you overhear some of the test-takers
complain about the test not appearing like it asks any questions
about medicine. The test most probably has inadequate
amounts of:
A. Internal Consistency
B. Face Validity
C. Predictive Validity
D. Concurrent Validity
44.) A classmate of yours complains that the test your
teacher gave does not contain any of the lessons that he has
been teaching the past week. You say that the test your
teacher gave has low:
A. Convergent Validity
B. Concurrent Validity
C. Content Validity
D. Construct Validity
45.) If your teacher discusses about fractions for most of the
week and then gives you a test about fractions before the
weekend starts, that test can be called a:
A. Achievement Test
B. Intelligence Test
C. Aptitude Test
D. Item Discrimination Test
46.) When a student comes to you for career counseling
and asks if she could take a test to find out what field she
would be good at, what kind of test would you recommend?
A. Interest Inventory
B. Aptitude Test
C. Intelligence Test
D. Structure Personality Test
47.) One of the most significant advantages of an
individually administered test is that:
A. Test-Retest Reliability
B. Inter-rater Reliability
C. Split-Half Reliability
D. Parallel Forms Reliability
49.) The highest score obtained on a test.
A. Test Flooring
B. Test Ceiling
C. Test Difficulty
D. Test Discriminability
50.) The first country to make use of psychological testing.
A. Great Britain
B. America
C. Cambodia
D. China
51.) Why do you need to make use of the Spearman-Brown
Formula after using the split-half method?
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Test-Retest Reliability
D. Split-Half Reliability
54.) Associated with the Differential Psychology movement
because he attempted to establish differences between
individuals.
A. Wilhelm Wundt
B. J.E. Herbart
C. Francis Galton
D. M. Winston
55.) In Regression Analysis, when the predicted score is 8
and the actual score is 14, 6 in this case is called the:
A. Intercept
B. Slope
C. Regression Coefficient
D. Residual
56.) These are points that divide the frequency distribution
into 4 equal parts.
A. Deciles
B. Quartiles
C. Quarters
D. Quartals
57.) It is the squared standard deviation.
A. Variate Coefficient
B. Variance
C. Standardized Score
D. Spread Coefficient
58.) If a scale’s values do not indicate how much more of a
particular physical attribute there is, then that scale is most
likely a/an _______ scale.
A. Nominal Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Ratio Scale
D. Interval Scale
59.) This type of validity is not considered to be an “official”
type of validity.
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Discriminant Validity
60.) A test you made wants to measure a very abstract
concept which needs to be properly and fully defined. The
type of validity you would wish to achieve is:
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Discriminant Validity
61.) This equation is used to find out the number of items
you need to add to a test to reach a certain level of
reliability.
A. Spearman-Brown Formula
B. Spearman Prophecy
C. Cronbach Alpha
D. Kuder-Richardson 20
62.) If an individual wants to find out whether or not her test
is relatively free of measurement error, she is trying to
calculate for:
A. Validity
B. Regression
C. Correlation
D. Reliability
63.) These tests provide ambiguous test questions.
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
65.) This test pioneered the use of empirical methods to
establish the meaning of test results
A. Regression
B. Frequency Distribution
C. Tracking
D. Norming
67.) You wish to administer an intelligence test to a group of
applicants. However, the test has been constructed in America
and you wish to make the scores more meaningful for local use.
What is the most practical thing to do?
A. Biserial Age
B. Basal Age
C. Mental Age
D. Intelligence Quotient
70.) Evidence obtained to demonstrate that a test measures
something different from what other available tests
measure.
A. Convergent Evidence
B. Factor Analysis
C. Divergent Evidence
D. Biserial Correlation
71.) A test that includes the following choices: strongly
disagree, disagree, neither disagree nor agree, agree,
strongly agree is using which test format?
A. Likert Scale
B. Dichotomous Scale
C. Multivariate Format
D. Multilayer Format
72.) When a test constructor obtains the percentage of test-
takers who got a correct answer in a certain item, she is
most likely trying to measure the _________.
A. Item Discriminability
B. Item Disability
C. Item Variance
D. Item Difficulty
73.) The phenomenon that causes the reliability of a scale
in behavior studies to be higher when an observer knows
that his or her work is being monitored.
A. Projectivity
B. Reactivity
C. Observability
D. Inconsistency
74.) The act of giving a test.
A. Test-giving
B. Test Administration
C. Test-taking
D. Test Construction
75.) The theory that states that the true score is equal to the
obtained score plus the error in measuring.
A. Direct Question
B. Formal Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Structured Question
78.) The amount decreased from the original calculated
correlation between two variables.
A. Regression
B. Shrinkage
C. Intercept
D. Deviation
79.) When a researcher wants to correlate two sets of ranks
for his research, he should use:
A. Spearman Prophecy
B. Spearman-Brown Coefficient
C. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. Spearman’s Rho
80.) In interviewing, a statement intended to comfort or
support.
A. Resting Statement
B. Reassuring Statement
C. Evaluative Statement
D. Hostile Statement
81.) In test construction, this is whether or not an item is
able to differentiate between high and low scorers in a test.
A. Item Difficulty
B. Item Discriminability
C. Item Construction
D. Item Legitimacy
82.) “Tell me more about…” is an example of a ______
statement.
A. Hostile Statement
B. Resting Statement
C. Evaluative Statement
D. Probing Statement
83.) The tendency for observers in behavioral studies to
stray from the definitions they learned during training and
to develop their own definitions of behaviors.
A. Regression
B. Shrinkage
C. Drift
D. Insubordination
84.) In conducting _______ interviews, interviewers with
more experience are preferred.
A. Structured
B. Unstructured
C. Projective
D. Hostile
85.) Alternatives on a multiple-choice exam that are not
correct or for which no credit is given.
A. Regressors
B. Differentials
C. Distractors
D. Triggers
86.) To administer annual routine tests to individuals
belonging to an organization without their official verbal or
written consent is _______.
A. Ethical
B. Unethical
C. Completely dependent on whether or not the individuals
refuse to take the test
D. Subject to PAP investigation
87.) This is a client’s right to keep the results of his test from
being released to the public.
A. Right to Privacy
B. Right to Confidentiality
C. Right of Suffrage
D. Right to Loyalty
88.) In test-decision analysis, the proportion of cases in
which a test accurately predicts success or failure.
A. Differential Validity
B. Test Discriminability
C. Hit Rate
D. Legitimacy
89.) The tendency to agree that what a test item says is true.
A. Agreeableness
B. Drift
C. Tracking
D. Acquiescence
90.) A test that consists of tasks that require a subject to do
something rather than to answer questions.
A. Actual Test
B. On-the-Job Test
C. Performance Scale
D. Unstructured Test
91.) A psychologist conducting research about the
correlation between students’ classroom rank and their
ranking of priorities in the household will use the following
correlation coefficient:
A. Phi Coefficient
B. Tetrachloric r
C. Spearman’s Rho
D. Point Biserial Correlation
92.) A method of calculating for the test’s item
discriminability wherein you correlate the performance of
each test taker to his/her performance on the whole test.
A. Correlation-Causation Problem
B. Restricted Range
C. Third Variable
D. Cross Validity Issue
94.) Fifteen rationally derived items included in both the
MMPI and MMPI-2 designed to evaluate a naive attempt to
present oneself in a favorable light. People who score high
on this scale are unwilling to acknowledge minor flaws.
A. Lie Scale
B. K Scale
C. Infrequency Scale
D. T Scale
95.) You calculated for the item difficulty of a true-false item and
obtained the value 0.5. What is the best thing to do with the
item?
A. Checklist
B. Q-Sort
C. Category Format
D. Likert Format
97.) Dogs of the same family were randomly assigned to two
groups marked as “trained” and “untrained.” The researcher
called for random experimenters to take the “trained” and
“untrained” dogs and teach them a few tricks. It was observed
that the dogs marked “trained” were perceived to learn the
tricks faster as compared to the “untrained” dogs. This is an
example of _______ in the research setting.
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Acquiescence
C. Rosenthal Effect
D. Contrast Effect
98.) An item format in which the respondent is shown a 100
mm line and asked to answer by pointing out which part of
the line represents their answers for a particular item.
A. Q-Sort
B. Likert Scale
C. Category Scale
D. Visual Analogue Scale
99.) To demonstrate ________, a researcher could show that
the measured variable has a low correlation to other
unrelated variables.
A. Convergent Validity
B. Discriminant Validity
C. Reliability
D. Concurrent Validity
100.) Administering intelligence tests in a neutral tone without
any reinforcements is done because:
A. Job Description
B. Job Analysis
C. Job Dissemination
D. Performance Assessment
Job Analysis – Foundation of all human resource activities
Job Analysis – Foundation of all human resource activities
A. Job Description
B. Job Analysis
C. Job Dissemination
D. Performance Assessment
Job Description – A detailed and accurate description of
the job
A. Job Participation
B. Job Role
C. Job Satisfaction
D. Job Specification
4.) A body of information needed to perform a task.
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Ability
D. Other Characteristics
KSAO
K – Knowledge
S – Skills
A – Abilities
O – Other Characteristics
Knowledge – Body of information needed to perform the
task
Skill – Proficiency to perform a learned task
Ability – Basic capacity to perform
Other Characteristics – Everything else like personality,
willingness, family background, etc.
5.) This is the prevalent need of leaders who want to be in
control of other people.
A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. Adjourning
Stages of the Team Process
1. Forming
2. Storming
Stages of the Team Process
3. Norming
4. Performing
Stages of the Team Process
5. Adjourning
8.) A theory of leadership stating that leaders will be
effective if their behavior helps subordinates achieve
relevant goals.
A. Position Style
B. Adjustment Theory
C. Path-Goal Theory
D. Trait Theory
9.) The idea that organizations tend to promote good
employees until they reach the level at which they are not
competent.
A. Peter Principle
B. Galatea Effect
C. Hawthorne Principle
D. Primacy Effect
Peter Principle – Promotion of employees until they reach
the level at which they are not competent.
A. Type A personality
B. Type B personality
C. Eustress Personality
D. Distress Personality
11.) The theory that states that job satisfaction is influenced
by two factors in the workplace.
A. Path-Goal Theory
B. Two-Factor Theory
C. Organizational Fit Theory
D. Consistency Theory
12.) Aldefer’s ERG Theory talks about three levels of
satisfaction:
A. Galatea Effect
B. Peter Principle
C. Golem Effect
D. Hawthorne Effect
14.) When talking about Herzberg’s Theory, these are the
factors that come from the environment and not from the
job itself.
A. Hygiene Factors
B. Job Satisfaction
C. Motivators
D. Outsourcing
Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory
A. Projective Test
B. Trade Test
C. Integrity Test
D. Interest Inventory
16.) People with this believe that they are responsible for
and are in control of their success or failure in life.
A. Expectancy
B. Valence
C. Instrumentality
D. External Equity
18.) This is the power obtained by individuals who have
knowledge.
A. Reward Power
B. Referent Power
C. Legitimate Power
D. Leadership Position Power
Raven’s Bases of Power:
A. Peter Principle
B. Hawthorne Effect
C. Galatea Effect
D. Golem Effect
21.) A type of rating error in which the rater focuses on a
single positive characteristic and allows that to influence
everything else in their assessment.
A. Fork-tail Error
B. Hawthorne Effect
C. Peter Principle
D. Halo Error
22.) A method of performance appraisal involving the
placement of benchmark behaviors next to each point on a
graphic rating scale.
A. Contrast Effect
B. Corresponding Effects
C. Hawthorne Effect
D. Galatea Effect
Contrast Effect – Performance of one applicant influences
the perception of the performance of another
A. External Recruitment
B. Internal Recruitment
C. Selective Recruitment
D. Employee Referral
26.) Sources such as supervisors and incumbents who are
knowledgeable about a job.
A. Job Master
B. Referral
C. Subject Matter Experts
D. Type X Leaders
27.) Elements of a job that concern the actual duties
performed by the employee.
A. Hygiene Factors
B. Motivators
C. Needs
D. Norms
28.) Happens when employees change their behavior due
solely to the fact that they are receiving attention or are
being observed.
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Drift
C. Hindsight Bias
D. Pygmalion Effect
29.) The extent to which members of a group like and trust
one another.
A. Group Size
B. Group Status
C. Group Cohesiveness
D. Groupthink
30.) The theory that believes that employees are
extrinsically motivated or not innately motivated to do their
work.
A. Theory X
B. Fiedler’s Contingency Model of Motivation
C. Two-Factor Theory of Motivation
D. Theory Y
31.) When the completion of a task by one person affects
the completion of a task by another person.
A. Task Structuredness
B. Task Analysis
C. Task Inventory
D. Task Interdependence
32.) Proficiency in performing a particular task.
A. Technique
B. Skill
C. Knowledge
D. Ability
33.) The process of confirming the accuracy of résumé and
job application information.
A. Referral Service
B. Referent Power
C. Recruitment
D. Reference Check
34.) The process of attracting interested applicants for
vacant job positions in a company.
A. Selection
B. Processing
C. Recruitment
D. Interviewing
Recruitment – Process of searching for and securing
applicants
Two Major Sources of Recruitment:
1. Internal
2. External
Different Methods of Recruitment:
1. Job Posting
3. Advertising Media
4. Walk-ins
Different Methods of Recruitment:
7. Government Agencies
8. The Internet
Selection – Determining which among the applicants is the
most qualified
35.) A method in which employees are given the
opportunity to perform several different jobs in an
organization.
A. Job Sharing
B. On-the-Job Training
C. Simulation
D. Job Rotation
36.) Applies knowledge of human capabilities and
requirements to the design of work devices, systems, and
the physical work setting in order to make these devices
“user-friendly.”
A. Industrial-Organizational Psychology
B. Human Resource Management
C. Time and Motion Studies
D. Ergonomics
37.) The tendency for supervisors to recall and place more
weight on recent behaviors when they evaluate
performance.
A. Recency Effect
B. Primacy Effect
C. Racial Bias
D. Halo Effect
38.) It is the grouping of jobs based on similarities in
requirements and duties. It is also useful for determining
pay levels, transfers, and promotions.
A. Job Evaluation
B. Job Classification
C. Job Design
D. Performance Appraisal
39.) A good trait of a ________ is that upon reading it, the
reader would immediately get an accurate picture of the
job.
A. Job Classification
B. Job Title
C. Job Evaluation
D. Job Design
40.) This involves other relevant information about the
applicant like his/her gender, age, and personality traits.
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Abilities
D. Other Characteristics
41.) The extent to which behavior learned in training will
be performed on the job.
A. Triangling
B. Transfer of Training
C. Needs Analysis
D. Skills
42.) In expectancy theory, the perceived desirability of a
consequence that results from a particular level of
performance.
A. Expectancy
B. Instrumentality
C. Valence
D. Relatedness
43.) An exercise designed to place an applicant in a
situation that is similar to the one that will be encountered
on the job.
A. On-the-Job Training
B. Case Study
C. Simulation
D. Job Rotation
44.) A group incentive method in which employees get a
percentage of the profits made by an organization.
A. Quota Rewards
B. Stock Options
C. RICE Allowance
D. Profit Sharing
45.) The process of having certain organizational functions
performed by an outside vendor rather than an employee
in the organization.
A. Organizational Socialization
B. Outsourcing
C. External Recruitment
D. External Hiring
46.) An employee trying to convey his work-related
concern with his supervisor is an example of _______
communication.
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Sideways
D. 360 Degree
47.) A type of rating error in which a rater consistently
gives all employees high ratings, regardless of their actual
levels of performance.
A. Halo Effect
B. Galatea Effect
C. Hawthorne Effect
D. Leniency Error
48.) A flextime schedule in which employees can choose
their own hours without any advance notice or scheduling.
A. Long-Distance Learning
B. Computer-based Training
C. Nesting
D. Online Recruitment
50.) Korman’s theory that employees will be motivated to
perform at levels consistent with their levels of self-esteem.
A. Consistency Theory
B. ERG Theory
C. Expectancy Theory
D. Social Learning Theory
51.) The psychological state of being overwhelmed with
stress.
A. Burnout
B. Type A Personality
C. Type B Personality
D. Red Herring
52.) Statements that are so general that they can be true of
almost anyone such as those used in astrological forecasts.
A. Barnum Statements
B. Leading Statements
C. Interrogative Statements
D. Cold Reading
53.) A training technique in which employees, usually in a
group, are presented with real or hypothetical workplace
problems and are asked to propose the best solution.
A. Simulation
B. On-the-Job Training
C. Case Study
D. Field Research
54.) A common practice in the Philippines is _______, where
employees recommend family members for a specific
position inside the company.
A. Employee Referral
B. Internal Recruitment
C. Outsourcing
D. Grapevine Recruitment
55.) The following are problems that interviewers usually
encounter during unstructured interviews except:
A. Contrast Effects
B. Interviewer-Interviewee Similarity
C. Primacy Effects
D. Hawthorne Effect
56.) This subset of abilities involve vision, color
discrimination, depth perception, glare sensitivity and are
usually expected in blue-collar workers for them to
perform their jobs well.
A. Psychomotor Ability
B. Cognitive Ability
C. Perceptual Ability
D. Physical Ability
57.) A selection method that considers an applicant’s life,
school, military, community, and work experience.
A. T-Data
B. Biodata
C. In-basket Technique
D. Personality Inventory
58.) The following are reasons for evaluating employee
performance except:
A. Change Agent
B. Change Analyst
C. Change Resister
D. Devil’s Advocate
60.) Factors, such as responsibility and education
requirements, that differentiate the relative worth of jobs.
A. Reward Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. IMPACT Power
D. Expert Power
62.) A selection strategy in which applicants must meet or
exceed the passing score on more than one selection test.
A. On-the-Job Training
B. Work Sample
C. Multiple Cutoff Approach
D. Criterion-Related Approach
63.) The length of time an employee has been with an
organization.
A. Duration
B. Tenure
C. Mastery
D. Loyalty
64.) When managers look for unnecessary and complicated
procedures and attempt to streamline or outright remove
them, they are most likely conducting a:
A. Stock Options
B. Bonus Pay
C. Quota Bonus
D. Cut-off Incentive
66.) An applicant fears that one of the other applicants with
much better qualifications will be interviewed before him
leading him to be directly compared to that applicant. This
applicant is aware of the ________.
A. Halo Effect
B. Contrast Effect
C. Paper Cow Effect
D. Golem Effect
67.) This is where the Hawthorne Studies were conducted.
A. External
B. Internal
C. Hygiene
D. Motivator
70.) A type of rating error in which a rater consistently rates
all employees in the middle of the scale, regardless of their
actual levels of performance.
A. Hindsight Bias
B. Leniency Error
C. Pygmalion Effect
D. Central Tendency Bias
71.) A company posted a job opening in the newspapers which
included an ideal age range of 20-23 years old. This type of
practice is discouraged because it may cause _______ among
possible applicants.
A. Gender Discrimination
B. Wage Gap
C. Age Gap
D. Age Discrimination
72.) The branch of Human Resources concerned with
employees’ learning of necessary skills and additional
learning.
A. Company Relations
B. Training and Development
C. Public Relations
D. Recruitment
73.) A group of people interview a certain applicant for the position
of HR Representative in San Miguel Corporation. Each one of them
would ask the applicant different questions regarding her
background in the field of human resource management and if she is
willing to invest more time into the company. This type of interview is
called a:
A. Stress Interview
B. Panel Interview
C. Group Interview
D. Online Interview
74.) This is a graphical illustration of the structure and
members of a company.
A. Company Drawing
B. Structural Profile
C. Company Description
D. Organizational Chart
75.) A certain company allows their employees to choose the
time they start working as opposed to a fixed everyday
schedule. However, the employees are still required to put in the
same amount of work hours as any other company. This
company has a _______ schedule.
A. Inconsistent Type
B. Flextime
C. Contractual
D. Freelance
76.) A supervisor was observed to be very lenient towards his
employees, and easily gives in to the requests of his coworkers.
As a result, his team has one of the lowest productivity scores for
the year. This leader is what is called a:
A. Magnetic
B. Position
C. Coercive
D. Informational
79.) An employee, when sitting through a meeting, only
remembers the main points being talked about and not the
specifics. This employee can be said to have this kind of
listening style.
A. Leisure Listening
B. Stylistic Listening
C. Inclusive Listening
D. Technical Listening
80.) As a response to communication overload, Laura orders the
information she needs to process from most important to least
important and then deals with them accordingly. This style of
dealing with communication overload is called:
A. Escape
B. Use of a Gatekeeper
C. Use of multiple channels
D. Queueing
81.) A school principal is angry because he was not included in
the decision-making process to implement stricter admission
rules. According to the equity theory, this school principal is
seeking which type of equity or justice?
A. Distributive Justice
B. Procedural Justice
C. Interactional Justice
D. Wage Justice
82.) A law office agrees to pay their lawyers a portion of the
profits obtained after they earn a certain amount. This amount is
added to the lawyers’ base salary which, in turn, increases their
monthly earnings. This incentive is called:
A. Gainsharing
B. Profit Sharing
C. Stock Options
D. Quota Wage
83.) When a company decides to reinforce an employee by
letting him have short walks outside of company grounds when
delivering papers instead of staying all day inside his cubicle,
the company is taking advantage of the:
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Premack Principle
C. Financial Reward Principle
D. Contingency Model
84.) The best time to give rewards or punishments to
employees is:
A. ERG Theory
B. Two-Factor Theory
C. Job Characteristics Theory
D. Job Expectations Theory
86.) According to the ERG theory, these are the needs of
employees that are related to their need for survival and
sustenance.
A. Existence
B. Relatedness
C. Growth
D. Ecstasy
87.) During performance assessment, it was found that
giving an employee feedback on their performance would:
A. Motivate them
B. Demotivate them
C. Not affect their performance at all
D. Lessen the frequency of good performance
88.) The type of analysis that determines those
environmental factors that either facilitate or inhibit
training effectiveness.
A. Organizational Analysis
B. Task Analysis
C. Person Analysis
D. Needs Analysis
89.) When a group, after having multiple disagreements,
start understanding each other’s strengths and weaknesses
and take on individual roles, they are in this stage in the
group process:
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
90.) Probably the most biased form of performance
appraisal because this would make it hard for the appraiser
to be objective about his/her ratings.
A. Peer Appraisal
B. Supervisor Appraisal
C. Self-Appraisal
D. 360 Degree Appraisal
91.) A supervisor who wants to use Skinner’s concepts in
the way he manages his employees could make extensive
use of ________ to increase the frequency of good behavior.
A. Rewards
B. Punishment
C. Molding
D. Self-Control
92.) In making employment decisions, _________
information tend to have more weight than _________
information.
A. Positive, Negative
B. Negative, Positive
C. Neutral, Positive
D. Neutral, Negative
93.) When employees receive pay bonuses based on
performance appraisal scores, this is called:
A. Profit Sharing
B. Stock Options
C. Gainsharing
D. Merit Pay
94.) A system in which employees are given more
responsibility over the tasks and decisions related to their
job.
A. Job Enlargement
B. Job Enrichment
C. Time and Motion Studies
D. Job Development
95.) When a company encourages practicing a task even
after it has been mastered in order to retain learning, this is
called:
A. Overlearning
B. Training
C. Development
D. Multiple Hurdle Approach
96.) The extent to which an employee identifies with and is
involved with an organization.
A. Job Enrichment
B. Job Commitment
C. Organizational Commitment
D. Tenure
97.) The overall image that a supervisor has of an
employee.
A. Archetype
B. Exemplar
C. Prototype
D. Cognitive Bias
98.) A method of performance appraisal wherein a
supervisor ranks employees based on a normal
distribution curve.
A Span of Control
B. Managerial Skill
C. Homogeneity
D. Unity of Command
100.) A method of performance appraisal wherein each
employee is paired with every other employee and the
supervisor decides who of the two is superior.
A. Rank-Order Method
B. Paired Comparison Method
C. Forced Distribution Method
D. Graphic Rating Scale Method