WHAT YOU NEED TO

KNOW ABOUT THE

DECEMBER 2022
LEC/BLEC
 RA 11131
 AN ACT REGULATING THE PRACTICE OF
CRIMINOLOGY PROFESSION IN THE
PHILIPPINES, AND APPROPRIATING FUNDS
THEREFOR, REPEALING FOR THE
PURPOSE REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6506,
OTHERWISE KNOWN AS AN ACT CREATING
THE BOARD OF EXAMINERS FOR
CRIMINOLOGISTS IN THE PHILIPPINES
 Salient Features
 SECTION 13. Passing of Licensure Examination
Requirements. - Except as otherwise specifically
allowed under RA No. 11131, applicants for
registration for the practice of criminology shall
be required to pass a licensure examination in
such places and dates as the Commission may
designate through a Resolution on the Master
Schedules for all Licensure Examinations in
accordance with Section 7(d) of RA No. 8981.
 SECTION 14. Qualification of an Applicant
for the Licensure Examination. — An
applicant for the licensure examination for
criminologist shall satisfactorily prove that
one possesses the following qualifications:
 (a) Must be a citizen of the Republic of the Philippines
or a foreign citizen whose country/state has reciprocity
with the Philippines in the practice of criminology;
 (b) Must be of good moral character, good reputation
and of sound mind and body certified by the school
where he/she graduated and the barangay where
he/shelives, unless the examinee is a foreign national
a certification from any professional criminologist of
good standing will do;
 (c) Must hold a bachelor's degree in criminology
duly accredited by the CHED and conferred by a
school/college/ university duly authorized by the
government or its equivalent programs as
approved by the PRB obtained by either a
Filipino or foreign citizen from an institution of
learning in a foreign country/state: Provided, That
it is duly recognized and/or accredited by the
CHED;
 (d) Must not have been convicted of an offense
involving moral turpitude by a court of competent
jurisdiction; and
 (e) Those who failed five (5) times whether
consecutive or cumulative in the criminologist
licensure examination, must present a certification
issued by a reputable institution duly recognized
by the CHED that such applicant has satisfactorily
completed a refresher course in criminology.
 Documentary Requirements
 (a) Certificate of Live Birth in Philippine Statistics
Authority (PSA) Security Paper;
 (b) Marriage Contract in PSA Security Paper for
married female applicants;
 (c) College Diploma issued by PHEI with indication
therein of the date of graduation and Special Order
Number, unless it is not required. In case of degree
equivalency, the college diploma and the certificate
of equivalency issued by CHED.
 (d) Baccalaureate Transcript of Records (TOR) with indication
therein of the date of graduation and Special Order (SO) Number,
unless it is not required;
 (e) CHED Certification, Authentication and Verification (CAV);
 (f) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) Clearance;
 (g) Regional Trial Court Clearance;
 (h) Certificate of Good Moral Character issued by the school Dean
of the Criminology Program with the corresponding dry seal of the
college, and the barangay where the applicant actually resides;
 (i) Other documents that the Board may reasonably require.
Hurdling the Board Examination

 Now, in order to deal effectively with the

examinations, as an individual or as a
group, the philosophy of Sun Tzu may be
applied. As it is said, “ K now Thyself”
 The enemy refers to the board
examination; the self refers to the
examinee. The battle refers to the three-
day period of actual taking the six (6)
areas of the Board Examination.
 Based on the provisions of Republic Act No. 6506
and as per PRC syllabi, the coverage, schedule
and weight percentage of the board examination
is as follows:

 DA Y 1 – Morning Session –

1. CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE (20%) :

a. Criminal Law (RPC B K 1 & 2),

b. Criminal Procedure (Rule 110 to 127, RC),
c. Criminal Evidence (Rule 128 to 134, RC),
d. Practice Court ** Need to consider - Special Laws
  DAY 1 – Afternoon Session

2. LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMIN (L.E.A.) - (20%)

a. Police Org, Mgmt, Admin,

b. Police Personnel Mgmt,
c. Police Operational Planning,
d. Police Patrol Operations,
e. Police Communication Systems,
f. Police Com Relations,
g. Police Intelligence,
h. Security Management ** Need to Consider - Police
Problems, Contemporary Systems , Comparative
Police System
 DAY 2 – Morning Session –
3. CRIMINALISTICS - (20%)

a. Police Photography, Forensic Ballistics,

b. Dactyloscopy,
c. Q. Documents,
d. Forensic Chemistry,
e. Polygraphy,
f. Legal Medicine **Need to consider - other
related sciences
 DAY 2 – Afternoon Session –


4. CRIMINAL IDENTIFICATION &

DETECTION - (15%)

a. Basic/Fundamentals of Investigation,
b. Investigation of Special Crimes,
c. Fire Technology and Arson Investigation,
d. Traffic Management and Accident
Investigation,
e. Narcotic Investigation **Need to consider -
related investigative courses , Technical
report writing, Criminological research
  Day 3 – Morning Session –

5. CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS,

HUMAN RELATIONS AND CRISIS
MANAGEMENT (15%)

a. Basic/Fundamentals of Criminology,
b. Study of Juvenile Delinquency
Criminological / Police Ethics,
c. Human Behavior and Crisis Mgmt
Concepts of Criminal Justice System
 DAY 3 – Afternoon Session –

6. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION -
(10%)

a. Basic/Fundamentals of Penology,
Institutional Correction (Jails/Prisons)
Non-Institutional Correction (Probation),
Laws Related to Correction of Criminals
SUBJECTS AND ITS RELATIVE
WEIGHTS IN THE
LICENSURE EXAMINATION
FOR CRIMINOLOGIST
 Several ways to cope with the coverage of the
examinations:

1. Organize and prepare reading materials;

2. Review notes and quizzes based on the given scopes;

3. Visual aids and audio materials should be utilized as they can

improve aptitude particularly on memory or retention of
information in the brain;

4. The collection of test questionnaires given in the past board

examinations – useful as exercises or practices; practice makes
perfect;

5. Consider that Professional Regulation Commission’s (PRC) uses

computerized checking. Note that the exams are all presented
in a multiple-choice type of examination at 100 points per area
coverage. Therefore, in three days, the examinee will be
answering 600 questions.
 With this information, the examinee should
remember that the proctors are important
especially during the initial moments of the
examination because they give proper instructions
and other important details of the test – the
examinee have to listen to instructions; however,
he must not be too trustful to ask answers from
proctors even those who offer. The examinee
should be keen to know that they are not
criminologist rather they come from other
professions.

 Since checking of the examination result is

programmed on computers, the examinee must
strictly follow the general rule which states that
“erasures are not allowed”. Consider that erasure
or alteration is a mortal sin in taking the exams.
 Consider also the weight percentage per area of the
examination. Necessarily, one should consider that the
computation of the result is based on the given distribution of
the weights per area coverage.

 An example of the computation is shown below.

 Area Raw Score Times Weight Ave Score Criminal Jurisprudence

78 .20 15.6;
 Law Enforcement Administration 82 .20 16.4;
 Criminalistics 74 .20 14.8;
 Criminal Identification and Detection 65 .15 9.75;
 Criminal Sociology 69 .15 10.35;
 Correction Admin 80 .10 8.00 TOTAL/ OVERALL SCORE 74.9%.

The computed overall score is considered “Failed”. The summation

of the average scores should not be lower than 75 as a cut off
grade. The result in this example will be considered 70 because
it will not be rounded off to 75.
 Unknown to the majority of examinees,
even those who took and passed the
Licensure Examination, this is what the
PRC does in computing the scores.

 Hence, glancing about the system of

computation, one should not be targeting
50 points in the 100 items questions as
many used to do, instead one should
perform to achieve 75 points or higher. If
the examinee want to make it to the top,
then he should aim 85 points or higher.
 Another phase in knowing the enemy is that the
examinee should understand the mechanics of
multiple choice types of examinations. Many
consider this type of examination as an easy one;
however, this is a misconception. In fact, by
applying probability one can estimate the chances
of getting a correct answer from a given four or
five choices. This is what makes multiple-choice
type of examination difficult. But this type of
examination has been recognized to be the most
widely used objective test method. It measures
simple learning outcome measured by short
answer item, alternate-response item, and
matching exercise. It also measures complex
learning outcomes in the knowledge,
understanding, and application areas.
 Understanding its four characteristics makes
you more accurate in picking your choices.

 There is 1 - a problem (stem) in the form of a

direct question or an incomplete statement and
there are;

 2 - suggested solutions (alternatives) in the form

of words, numbers, symbols, or phrases;

 3- answer (correct alternative) then the rest are;

and

 4- distracters or the remaining alternatives.

A. There are several forms of applying the
mechanics of multiple-choice type of
examination. A review of the previous board
examination questions, the following
examples shows a few important lessons:

1. Direct Question Form :

 Which one of the following places modern policing
started?
A. USA B. London C. Scotland D. England

2. Incomplete Statement Form

 Rigor mortis is a post-mortem body changes
occurring in the –
A. Color B. Eye C. Blood D. Muscle
3. Best Answer Type :

 Which of the following is the most expensive type of patrol?

A. Helicopter Patrol B. Marine Patrol
C. K-9 Patrol D. Foot Patrol

B. Note also that multiple-choice types of examination are used

in measuring knowledge outcome as in the following:

4. Knowledge of Terminology:

 1. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of collusion?

A. Decision B. Continuation
C. Connivance D. Insinuation

 2. Which of these statements best describe conduction?

A. Heat transfers through liquid
B. Heat transfers through heat waves
C. Heat transfers through solid materials
D. Heat transfers through air motion
 3. What is meant by the word “horde” in
the following sentence: “The police
successfully dispersed the horde of
protesters.”
A. Large group B. Supporters
C. Motor Vehicles D. Barricade
C. Knowledge of Specific Facts:

 1. What was the first court that held upon the admissibility of
fingerprint as evidence?
A. New Jersey Court B. Illinois Court
C. California Court D. Seattle Court

 2. From what state did the Miranda Doctrine originate?

A. Oregon B. Arizona C. Michigan D. Texas

D. Multiple-choice type of exam is used for measuring outcomes

at the understanding and application levels like the examples
below:

 1. Which of the following does not fall under Class A fires?

A. Exploding gas depot B. Burning nipa hut
C. Forest fire D. None of the above

 2. Which of the following best illustrates arson?

A. Simultaneous fire B. Faulty electric wiring
C. Unexplained explosion D. Thick reddish smoke
E. Multiple choice type of exam is used to interpret
cause-and-effect relationships like this example:

 1. Carbon dioxide is hazardous because it –

A. is poisonous B. explodes when ignite by sparks
C. does not support life D. supports combustion

F. Multiple choice type of exam is also use to justify

methods of procedures such as this example:

 1. Why is water prohibited to quench Class D fires?

A. Burning metals are too hot
B. Water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
C. There is the danger of electrocution
D. Class D fires reacts violently with water
G. Valuable to know is that not all questions given in the Board
Examination are perfectly stated or phrased. As per
observation of the previous examination questionnaires,
there are some unintended errors like the following
examples:

1. If no appeal is made, a judgment becomes final after ______ days

from its promulgation.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Geographical Division
C. Venue
D. Territory

Note that what is being asked by the blank is the number of days from
promulgation but there is no number from the choices is given.

 Supposedly, if we were to correct it, it should have been: If no appeal

is made, a judgment becomes final after ______ days from its
promulgation.
 A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 30
H. In the next example, try to observe how the
question was phrased:

1. Who among the following were given the opinion to

join the PNP as provided under Republic Act No.
6975?
A. NAPOLCOM operatives B. NBI agents
C. Central banks Security Guards D. Jail Guards

It should have been:

Who among the following were given the option to

join the PNP as provided under Republic Act No.
6975?
A. NAPOLCOM operatives B. NBI agents
C. Central banks Security Guards D. Jail Guards
 In these instances, the examinee should be careful in
rephrasing the questions before picking the answer.
However, noted from former PRC Board of Examiners,
they tend to consider such erroneous questions as
bonus. Importantly, the examinee should never
leave an item blank in the answer sheet.

Finally, try to examine the proceeding example:

 In planning for a traffic control program, which of the

following IS NOT a factor to consider?
A. Model of cars and vehicles
B. Incidence of traffic accidents
C. Existing road/highway system
D. Traffic congestion hazards
You should be aware that many questions are like
the example above.
 In this instance, observe the following –

NOT, EXCEPT, OTHER THAN,

ALL BUT ONE

simply means that one is not included or

does not belong to the group. The word
NEITHER means none of these or none of
the above while EITHER means all of
these or all of the above.
 Dealing with the “SELF”

 Subsequent to studying the many

components encompassing the enemy,
the examinee should also focus on what
he has and develop them as another tool
to beat the examination. The examinee
need to determine his strengths first then
his weaknesses so that he can be able to
properly assess himself of his overall
standing. In doing this, he may consider
the following guidelines:
 During the Exam Days:

1. Pray First
2. Be early in the testing center
3. Relax, be cool, calm and be collected. Tone down your anxiety
by smiling and praying.
4. Avoid unnecessary talks with people who releases their
anxiety because it is contagious
5. Listen to the proctor, follow the instructions in the form filling
period
6. Be careful with the answer sheet.
7. Read and understand questions or the stem of the problem
thoroughly.
8. Don’t answer immediately halfway in the question. Study the
question up to the end, read all suggested answers.
9. Analyze and look for keywords and other clues before
choosing the answer
10. Try the process of elimination for difficult
questions

11. Remember: No ERASURES! When in doubt

leave the item; proceed to the next and
review your answers later.

12. Questions with NOT, NO, EXCEPT, DON’T

require negative to fact or exclusions.

13. Time is an advantage on your part, use it

wisely

14. Be positive but not over confident

 After Every Exam (per area):

1. Be calm and quiet then proceed to your camp and receive last
minute tips from your instructors.

2. Do not discuss the answers yet until the last examination period

3. Take heavy meals before every examination time

4. Browse notes and review materials to set your mind for the next
examination area/category

5. Never hurry in taking the examinations especially the last exam

area. Always take time and finish the examination with ease.

6. Reward yourself after the examination by going home safe.

 After Passing the Board Exam:

1. Check dates of the oath taking ceremony

and release of PRC licenses

2. Attend the oath taking ceremony – this

will give you a sense of pride and
experience a new beginning of your
professional career.
 BOARD EXAM
QUESTIONS FOR
CRIMINOLOGIST

CRIME DETECTION,
INVESTIGATION, AND
PREVENTION

DR. ROBINO D. CAWI

1. It is defined as an art which deals with
the identity and location of the offender
and provides evidence of his guilt
through criminal proceedings.

a. Criminal investigation
b. Interview and interrogation
c. Confession and admission
d. Criminal action

Ans. A
2. In sending out letters and relevant papers, the
documents should be arranged in a certain
manner. What do you call the act of arranging
the document?

a. Special mail handling

b. Filing
c. Assembling
d. Documentation

Ans. B
3. This provide a record of incidents
requiring police response and includes
criminal offenses, arrest and generAl
information.

a. Report
b. Narrative
c. Narration
d. Police Report

Ans. D
4. Several persons were injured as a result of a
bus skidding on a wet pavement. In preparing
an accident report, the term “Apparently in
good condition” should not be used in
reference to –

a. The Muffler
b. The Brakes
c. The As injured persons
d. The operator

Ans. B
5. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver,
which one of the ff. tests should be given
last?

a.) Hand writing

b.) Pupils of eyes
c.) Balance
d.) Walking and turning

ans. A
 6. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles,
operating as such approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a
probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at
the intersection must give preference to one
and cause the others to yield the right of way.
Of the following, the type of vehicle which
should generally be given preferences over any
of the vehicle is the-

 a. Ambulance
 b. Police car
 c. Fire truck
 d. Wrecker
Ans. c
7. One of the qualities of a good investigation
report states that it must be short but concise,
meaning, the report must be -

 a. Fair
 b. Brief
 C. Clear
 D. Impartial

 Ans. B
8. This is classification of the investigative report
which is used as a way of determining if the officer
is working on his case or not.

 A. Spot report
 B. Progress report
 C. Basic report
 D. Final report

 Ans. B
9.What factors are taken into consideration in the
determination of the liability of the person found
guilty of arson?

 A. the kind of building or property that

was burned.
 B. the location of the building
 C. whether the building is inhabited or not
 D. all of the above

 Ans. D
10. It is the transfer of heat which requires
physical contact between the bodies or
portions of bodies exchanging heat.

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer

Ans. A
11. The primary purpose of statutory
requirements for fire protection is-
 A. to see to it that the buildings are
insured
 B. to safeguard life
 C. to see to it that the buildings are fire
hazard free.
 D. to generate income for the
government.
 Ans. C
 12. Physical evidence is generally given
weight the courts because -

 A. it speaks for its self

 B. it cannot lie
 C. not affected by emotion
 D. all of the forgoing

 Ans. D
 13. This is the tying up of all loose ends
.
pertinent to the investigation so as to form
a clear and composite picture of the crime
committed, to the mind of the reader, for
prosecutorial and judicial action.

 A. spot report
 B. progress report
 C. basic report
 D. final report
 Ans. D
 14. The effectiveness of a traffic law
enforcement program is best measured by-

 A. a reduction of a traffic accidents and delays.

 B. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
 C. a decrease in the ration of conviction to
enforcement actions.
 D. None of the Above

 Ans. A
 15. Physical or personal appearance is important
when testifying in court because -

 A. it will determine the quality of your testimony

 B. it will determine the quantity of your
testimony.
 C. it will affect the weight given to your
testimony by the court
 D. it will reduce the chances of the defense
attacking your testimony.

Ans. A
 16. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one
of the rights provided for by the law is
protection against self-incrimination and right is
found on the grounds of-

 A. public policy and morality

 B. public policy and humanity
 C. humanity kindness
 D. humanity and conscience

 Ans. B
 17. This method or technique of criminal
identification is more convenient than
other methods or techniques since the
element of suggestion is avoided in the
identification process.

 A. cartography
 B. rogues gallery
 C. police-line up
 D. fingerprint
 Ans. D
 If the eyewitness is used to identify the
perpetrator, what identification method
has the least element of suggestion on the
part of the investigator?
 a. Rogues gallery method
 b. Portrait parle
 c. Cartography
 d. Police line-up
 Ans D
 18. His methods made popular the logic of
employing a thief to catch a thief

 A. Henry Fielding
 B. Jonathan Wild
 C. John Fielding
 D. Robert Peel
 Ans. B
 This is the identification established indirectly by
proving other facts or circumstances from which,
either alone or in connection with other facts, the
identity of the suspect can be inferred.
 A. Identification Based on Circumstantial Evidence
 B. Identification by Testimonies of Eyewitnesses
 C. Confession or Admission of the Criminal himself
 D. Identification Based on Associative Evidences

 Ans A
 The sufficiency of Circumstantial Evidence to produce the
conviction of the accused are the following, except:
 A. When there are more than one circumstance present.
 B. When the facts from which the inference are derived
are proven.
 C. when the combination of all the circumstances is such
as to produce a conviction beyond a reasonable doubt.
 D. none of them
 Ans D
 Jonathan gave an information to Pcapt Chester about
the activities of the known Drug queen Cherry.
However, the former does not wish to be known as
the source of information. Ariel is known as-
 A. Informant
 B. Informer
 C. Confidential Informer
 D. Confidential Informant
 Ans D
 Samuel wanted to give an information to the investigator of
a murder case committed several days ago. Among the
following, which should not be performed by the
investigator?
 A. Meeting with the informant should be held at a place other than the office of the investigator.
 B. The circumstances surrounding the meetings should not be repeated to the extent that a
recognizable pattern is created.
 C. The proper name of the informant should not be used in telephone calls. .
 D. The investigator’s organization ( police department ) should not be identified in any
correspondence with the informant.
 E. Ask the informant to just send the information by email to protect his identity

 Ans E
 What method of search can be used to
search a vehicle?
 A. quadrants search
 B. strip search
 C. Lane search
 D. Circle search
 Ans A
 It serves as the explanation of any symbol
used to identify objects in the sketch.
 A. symbol
 B. Desigantor
 C. Legend
 D. Evidence locator
 Ans C
 What Rules to be Observed Before Physical Evidence can
be Introduced into the Trial of Criminal Cases?
 1. The articles gathered as evidence must be properly
identified.
 2. Continuity or chain of custody of the evidence must be
proved.
 3. Competency must be proved and it must be shown that
the evidence is material and relevant to the case.
 A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
 B. 2 and 3 D. all of them
 Ans D
 When physical evidence are exposed to the
elements that may result to the deterioration of
the evidentiary value of an object, such
alteration was due to:
 A. Natural Causes
 B. Negligence
 C. Accident
 D. Intentional damage or theft
 Ans A
 Which is not true about marking of physical evidence?
 A. Solid objects which have a volume of approximately one
cubic inch or greater should be marked for identification with
the initials of the investigator receiving or finding the
evidence.
 B. The markings should not be placed where the evidentiary
traces exist.
 C. A sharp pointed instrument like a stylus may be used for
marking hard objects, while pen and ink for absorbent
articles.
 D. none of thhem
 Ans D
 The written record made by the investigator upon
arrival at the crime scene which contains
observations of the crime scene results of the
interview of witnesses, evidence collected and
others is called

a. Initial report c. Investigation report

b. Report d. Field note
Ans. D
What is the legal term for nighttime?

a. sanctuary c. absurdity
b. ephitomy d. nocturnity

Ans D
The art of sketching the image of a person
by description of witnesses and victims is
called

a. drawing c. composite
sketching
b. mapping d. cartooning
Ans C
What law requires the procurement
of working permit for minors to
avoid any child exploitation and
child abuse in any form?

a. RA 9231 c. RA 7438
b. RA 9208 d. RA 8358
Ans A
 a. RA 9231
 RA 9231 "An Act Providing for the
Elimination of the Worst Forms of Child
Labor and Affording Stronger Protection
for the Working Child, Amending for the
Purpose R.A. No. 7610."
Maintenance made up of all those who had
custody of the evidence since its acquisition
by a police agency to ensure continuous
accountability defines

a. chain of custody
b. transfer of evidence
c. custody of evidence
d. chain of custody of evidence
Ans D
Dismembered or cut up parts of the human
body such as hand, feet, torso, sex organ,
and others which are thrown to different
places to conceal a crime is called

a. mutilation
b. mutilated remains
c. chop chop
d. mutilated
Ans B
The law on criminal evidence is
integrated in the
a. Revised Penal Code
b. Revised Rules of Court
c. 1987 Philippine Constitution
d. Revised Administrative Code
Ans B.
If criminal investigation is a process, after
identifying then collecting information and
evidences, the next logical step to do is

a. present them in court

b. preserve their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in
establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the
case
Ans B.
The fundamental responsibility of the officer in
charge of protecting the crime scene is

a. interrogating the witnesses

b. engaging in the search for traces left by
the search for traces left by the criminal
c. removal of evidence which may prone
important to the case
d. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical
condition as it was left by the perpetrator
Ans D
A policeman discovers two teenage gangs numbering
about 50 boys, engaged in a free-for-all fight. The best
immediate course of action for the policeman to take is
to
a. call the police station for reinforcement
b. fire over the heads of the boys (warning shots) and
order them to disperse
c. arrest the ring leaders
d. call upon adult bystanders to assist him in restoring
order
e. attempt to stop the fight by using his night stick
The simplest and the most effective way of
showing actual measurements and
identifying significant items of evidence in their
locations at the scene is

a. reconstruction c. physical
reconstruction
b. drawing d. sketching
Ans D
Romeo was accused of having murdered
Abdullah a Muslim. The accused claims that the
homicide was committed in self defense. Of the
following, the evidence which best supports
Romeo claim is that
a. Romeo was armed; it is uncertain as to
whether Abdullah was armed
b. Neither Romeo nor Abdullah was not armed
c. Romeo was armed; Abdullah was not armed
d. Romeo and Abdullah were armed
e. Abdullah was armed; Romeo was not.
Which among the following stages of
investigation involves a longer time span?
a. Preliminary c. In-depth
b. Secondary d. Concluding
Ans C
These are hints that suggest lines of
investigative actions and information that is
valuable in expanding the universe of suspects,
identifying prime suspects and finding the
guilty person. These are called

a. information c. investigative leads

b. corpus delicti d. modus operandi
Ans C
During a quarrel on a crowded street of Baguio City, one man stabs
another and flees. A policeman arriving at the scene a short time
later finds the victim unconscious, calls for an ambulance and
orders the crowd to leave. His action was

a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the assault

among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an injured
person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to order
people about needlessly.
The sketch that gives the picture of the
crime scene, and its immediate
environment is called
a. sketch of ground
b. sketch of locality
c. sketch of details
d. sketch of surrounding
 The effectiveness of this tool in investigation
depends on the craft, logic and psychological
insight of the initiator in interpreting the
information relevant to the case is called
 a. Instrumentation
 b. information
 c. Interrogation
 d. interview
It is the product of either deductive or
inductive reasoning or combination of
both approaches that more than a learned
guess, but less than a certainty; however,
possesses a very high order of probability.

a. Physical reconstruction
b. hypothesis
c. Mental reconstruction
d. rational theory
 

It is the type of reconstruction of crime

wherein collected information is analyzed
carefully thereby developing a theory of
the crime.
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Physical reconstruction
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Mental reconstruction
The condition and favorable time of the
suspect to possibly execute and
commit the crime refers to

a. motive c. timing
b. opportunity d. alibi
Ans B
The initial inquiry by officers to establish facts
and circumstances of a suspected crime and
to preserve any evidence related to the crime
is called

a. follow up investigation
b. inquest
c. preliminary investigation
d. ocular inspection
According to the portrait parle of
identification, which set of
peculiarities are the most important?

a. age, race, build

b. nose, hair, complexion
c. chin, eyes, lips
d. neck, mouth, ears
What is the standard inner perimeter
for roping off an outdoor crime
scene?

a. ten square feet

b. twenty square feet
c. forty square feet
d. sixty square feet
A law enforcement conversation with
witnesses or victims should follow a ____
pattern.

a. block-by-block
b. signs of the cross
c. you-we-I
d. plain view
What kind of sketch would generally
be used with an outdoor crime
scene?

a. the coordinate method

b. the triangulation method
c. the cross-projection method
d. the single spiral method
The correct order of a crime scene
analysis is:

a. sketch, search, photograph

b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
 

The least common man-made fiber is:

a. nylon
b. polyester
c. rayon
d. spandex
 Question 48

What does it mean if a person is a "secretor"?

a. they sweat a lot at crime scenes due to a

severe perspiration problem
b. their saliva and other non-blood fluids can be
traced to a blood type
c. their bodily fluids are easily found at crime
scenes
d. they leave easy fingerprints to lift because of
excessive skin oil
Guilty suspects will usually scratch
what part of their body?

a. head
b. neck
c. arms
d. legs
If a suspect's eye movement is to
their right & up, they are:

a. trying to recall a visual truth

b. trying to make up a visual lie
c. trying to recall an auditory truth
d. trying to make up an auditory lie
The cognitive interview technique
works best on suspects with:

a. an alibi
b. memory problems
c. good acting ability
d. psychiatric problems
What is the cognitive interviewing
technique?

a. eliciting a nonverbal response from the

subject
b. eliciting a verbal, emotional response
from the subject
c. having the subject repeat the story from
various starting points in the story
d. making the subject feel guilty so they
want to confess
What method of confronting denial is
used on a suspect with good acting
ability and who gives you no
nonverbal behavior to interpret?

a. cognitive interviewing
b. selective interviewing
c. enticement interviewing
d. the Reid model of confession
Which of the following is NOT one of the
three recognized types of informants?

a. volunteer
b. paid
c. anonymous
d. conscientious
The "instigator"-informant is used most
commonly in what situation?

a. a case with no leads

b. a buy-bust operation
c. an organized crime case
d. during an ongoing trial to get witnesses
The politically correct way to refer to
informants is:

a. snitches
b. tipsters
c. junior detectives
d. special employees
In a report describing stolen property,
which
items are first on the list?

a. articles with market value

b. articles with identifying characteristics
c. articles with numerical characteristics
d. articles bearing initials or personal
marks
What was the first scientific method
of identifying criminals?

A. fingerprint cards
B. the line-up
C. the Bertillon method
D. the Vucetich-Henry system
 19.It is considered as a patient, step by
step inquiry or observation, a careful
examination, a recording of evidence or
legal inquiry
 A. recording
 B. investigation
 C. collection
 D. examination
 Ans. B
 20. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance,
and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton.

 A. role
 B. shadowing
 C. modus operandi
 D. casing

 Ans. B
 21. Being an investigator able to solve
cases, he must posses the ability to be
patient to obtain accurate and complete
information, specially with uncooperative
subjects is-

 A. integrity
 B. perseverance
 C. alertness
 D. logical mind
 Ans. B
 22. The fact that no physical evidence was
found at the scene of the crime will most likely
mean that-

 A. the victim cleaned up before the police

arrived.
 B. the suspect was professional
 C. the suspect was juvenile
 D. the police probably did not conduct a
complete search for evidence.

 Ans. D
 23.The term describes the transfer of heat
through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to light is-

 A. conduction
 B. convection
 C. radiation
 D. fire

 Ans. C
 24. There are 2 types of standards to be
obtained in the investigation of a
questioned documents: 1 is collected and
the other is -

 A. photographed
 B. replicated
 C. dictated
 D. all of the foregoing

 Ans. B
 25. The purpose of this is to provide a
brief, informative summary of the nature
and important event in the case.

 A. synopsis
 B. details of the report
 C. recommendation
 D. conclusion

 Ans. A
 26. During an interview, planning is
important and must follow the order of
time ad bring out facts orderly as they
happened, this technique is called-

 A. chronological questioning
 B. physical questioning
 C. psychological questioning
 D. None of these
 Ans. A
 27. A case decided in USA in the year
1920 that established the “ Doctrine of the
Fruit of the Poisonous Tree”.

 A. MAPP vs. USA

 B. MAPP vs. Ohio
 C. USA vs. Ohio
 D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US

 Ans. B
 28. An English man who wrote a novel
entitled “ Tom Jones”, was appointed as
Magistrate for the areas of Westminster
and Middlesex in London.

 A. Patrick Colquhoun
 B. Charles Dickens
 C. Henry Fielding
 D. Robert Peel
 Ans. C
 29. This report is one which is routinary
act it is submitted daily by any duty
inspector.

 A. spot report
 B. special report
 C. beat inspection report
 D. after patrol report

 Ans. D
 30. Police report which requires deals
with ordinary, miscellaneous, day-to-day
memorandum, letter or form accomplished
by any member of a unit.

 A. basic report
 B. formal report
 C. spot report
 D. special report
 Ans. B
 31.The first responsibility of a police
officer assigned to investigate a reported
homicide is-

 A. arrest the offender

 B. administer first aid to the victim
 C. promptly respond to the assignment
with reasonable and safe speed.
 D. protect the crime scene.

 Ans. C
 32. The first female detective hired by the
North-Western Police Agency.

 A. Jane Doe
 B. Kate Wayne
 C. June Downey
 D. Demi Moore

 Ans. B
33. What Special Law punishes the crime of
Arson which amends the provision of the
Revised Penal Code.

a. Presidential Decree 603

b. Presidential Decree 968
c. Presidential Decree 1612
d. Presidential Decree 1613

Ans. D
 34.Known as the simplest and the most effective
way of showing actual measurement and of
identifying significant items of evidence in their
location at the scene is-

 A. photograph
 B. sketch
 C. graphing
 D. all of the above

 Ans. B
 35.Illegal acts committed by business and
professional people while earning their
living are classified as-

 A. Blue-collar crimes
 B. crime mala in se
 C. white-collar crimes
 D. crime mala prohibita

Ans. C
36. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
Territory” such as the investigator room at the
police station because the place –

a. Is comfortable to the suspect

b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect

Ans. D
37. The collection of photographs of
criminals taken by the police for
identification purposes is technically
called?

a. Cartographic files
b. Identification kit
c. Mug File
d. Criminal Record

Ans. C
38. Julia Roberts gives information to the
police without waiting for reward or
payment because she considered herself
as –

a. Ex-convict
b. Informant
c. Defendant
d. Accused

Ans. B
39. In essence, it is a chemical reaction in
which the substance combines with
oxygen, heat is released and the form of
substance is destroyed.

a. Fire
b. Fuel
c. Ignition
d. Oxygen

Ans. C
40. It is, in most cases, the initial step for
obtaining information to determine the
origin and cause of fire.

a. Interviewing witness/es
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover work assignment
d. To investigate the insurance company
and the owner of the insurance company

Ans. A
41. This is the lifeblood of investigation and
hence to be considered seriously and
also to be followed up. Once it dries you
have nowhere to go.

a. Information
b. Intelligence
c. Interview
d. Instrumentation

Ans. A
42. These are attached and distributed in
the ceiling of rooms, activated by the
increase of temperature and water is
delivered right where it is needed.

a. Fire pump
b. Fire hydrant
c. Automatic sprinklers
d. Fire extinguisher

Ans. C
The Automatic Sprinkler
43. Joe Bidenis testifying in court to
disprove the criminal charge filed against
him. Thus, he is the –

a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Criminal
d. Respondent

Ans. D
44. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
he should first of all –

a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to

jar
b. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or
photographed and measurements taken before he
collects the evidence
c. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime
Laboratory for specific examination
d. Compare the following edge of the tool with
impression to determine if this was the tool used in
crime.

Ans. B
45. Steve Rogers is an alleged thief. He is being
accused of stealing personal property but he is
not yet under the custody of the police.
Therefore, he is legally addressed as –

a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Accomplice
d. Accessory

Ans. A
46. This inquiry begins with a general
reexamination of all facts, leads and other
types of information secured during the initial
investigation.

a. Preliminary investigation
b. In Depth investigation
c. Follow-up investigation
d. In Depth investigation or Follow-up
investigation

Ans. D
47. If proof is the outcome of evidence,
what is evidence?

a. Measurement of guilt
b. Means of ascertaining the truth
c. Instrument of proof
d. All of the foregoing

Ans. D
48. He became the first detective in Chicago
Police Department in 1849.

a. Henry Fielding
b. Allan Pinkerton
c. Jonathan Wild
d. Robert Peel

Ans. B
49. A burned body found was subjected to
autopsy, however, examination of lungs and
blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon
monoxide or dioxide. What will be your
interpretation under this circumstances?

a. The person is died because of burning

b. The person is died due to asphyxia
c. The person was killed before he was burned
d. The person died not of fire bur because of
suffocation

Ans. C
50. This may be applicable to a crime scene
which approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and
proceed outward along a radii or spokes.

a. Wheel method
b. Zone method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method

Ans. A
51. This signifies the ways and means device by a
peace officer to apprehend a person who has
committed a crime; with or without the said
device or means, the crime has already been
committed –

a. Entrapment
b. Treachery
c. Instigation
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. A
52. All of the following are generally accepted
rules of behavior that should be followed by
police officer first arriving at the crime scene of
a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –

a. Try to keep the witnesses separated

b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discuss the crime with persons who witness
the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as
possible but do not leave the scene unguarded
while doing so

Ans. C
53. The known case on personal
identification that caused the total
damaged of Anthropometry is –

a. Best case
b. Dellinger case
c. USA vs. Jennings
d. West case

Ans. D
54. The “whom”, “where”, or “which”
information are derived and developed
refers to the –

a. Traces of information
b. Testimony
c. Evidence
d. Sources of information

Ans. D
55. The primary reason for conducting a
search in the crime scene is to –

a. Obtain obvious physical evidence

b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of
operation

Ans. A
56. Marking of evidence, as far as
practicable, should be made on the item
itself upon collection, in a place least
likely to affect the appearance of its –

a. Monetary value
b. Monetary and evidentiary
c. Evidentiary value
d. Integrity and identity

Ans. C
57. A powerful operated traffic control
device by which traffic is warned of
directed to take some specific action is
called ?

a. Object markings
b. Club markings
c. Reflectorized markings
d. Traffic light signal

Ans. D
58. Generally this drugs produces a relaxing
state without impairment of high
facilities or the inducement of sleep is
known as –

a. Stimulants
b. Narcotics
c. Tranquilizers
d. Barbiturates

Ans. C
59. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears
that the pursuit is not possible, what should
you not do?

a. Better use your time and efforts to alert

another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and continue what you are
previously doing
c. Inform the dispatcher of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
coordination with other police units

Ans. B
60. What do you think is the significant data
for an arson investigator to gather from
the fire scene?

a. Odor
b. Rapidity of fire
c. Color of smokes and flames
d. All of the foregoing

Ans. D
61. It is the intentional deprivation of any
body organ necessary for reproduction.

a. Abortion
b. Castration
c. Physical injuries
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. B
62. This crime is committed whenever a
public officer does not account for what
he collects and he misappropriates the
fees collected.

a. Estafa
b. Malversation
c. Corruption of public official
d. Bribery

Ans. B
63. This situation takes place when a police
officer induce a person to commit a
crime and arrest him after the
commission of the crime.

a. Instigation
b. Recidivism
c. Voluntary surrender
d. Entrapment

Ans. A
64. This refer to the immediate
apprehension or cognition-quick and
ready insight without the conscious use
of reasoning.

a. Imagination
b. Intuition
c. Curiosity
d. Opinion

Ans. B
65. It was the first natural stimulant that was
discovered.

a. Nicotine
b. Epinedrine
c. Caffeine
d. Ephedrine

Ans. C
66. Criminal investigation is not a science, it is not
governed by rigid rules, or laws, but most
often, it is governed by –

a. Intuition
b. To a minor extent by chance or luck
c. Felicity or inspiration
d. All of the foregoing

Ans. D
67. This is defined as a transition which occurs in
the development of fire when, for example,
most of all the combustible surfaces within a
room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.

a. Ignition
b. Starter
c. Flash-over
d. Intensity

Ans. C
68. Whether it be solid, liquid, or gas, is the
minimum temperature that the
substance must be heated in order to
sustain combustion.

a. Temperature
b. Flash point
c. Ignition temperature
d. Burning point

Ans. B
69. Which of the following types of accidents is
most decreased by the installation of traffic
lights?

a. Accidents of confusion
b. Cross traffic accidents
c. Accidents of decisions of right of way
d. Misunderstanding between motorists

Ans. D
70. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which
must be proved where it is an element of the
offense charged.

a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Modus operandi
d. Background interview

Ans. A
71. In 1877, even without his field police
experience, he become the head of the
Scotland Yard organized investigators known
as the Criminal Investigation Department.

a. Charles Dickens
b. Edward Rucker
c. Howard Vincent
d. Francis Turkey

Ans. A
72. The word investigate was derived from
the Latin word ______ meaning to track
or trace, a derivation easily related to
police investigation.

a. Investigare
b. Vestigare
c. Tracer
d. Tracker

Ans. B
73. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more
traffic accidents than any other in the area. The police
unit assigned to the area should:

a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for

violators
b. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from
view
d. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorists

Ans. B
74. It is a term used as anything used to
enhance the quality of fire.

a. Accelerants
b. Arson
c. Trailers
d. Plants

Ans. D
75. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by himself
whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should
obtain a receipt from each person to whom he
gives or receives evidence. This statement is
applicable to –

a. Chain of custody of evidence

b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To established the guilt of the accused.

Ans. A
76. Can a child below 15 years old be employed?

a. Yes, provided that the employer shall ensure

the protection, health safety and morals of the
child
b. Yes, provided that the employer shall secure
the child a working permit from DOLE
c. No, he is a minor
d. A and B only

Ans. D
77. It is the duty of the officer who first
arrive at the crime scene.

a. Locate and apprehend the accused

b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt

Ans. B
78. The most likely place to look for
fingerprints of the thief in an automobile
which has been stolen and abandoned is
on –

a. Door handles
b. Steering wheel
c. Rear view mirror
d. Dashboard

Ans. A
79. It is defined as maybe a self-
incriminatory statement by the subject
falling short of an acknowledgement of
guilt.

a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Deposition
d. Information

Ans. B
80. Articles and materials found in connection with
investigation and which aides in establishing
the identity of the perpetrator or
circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.

a. Corpus delicti
b. Fruits of the crime
c. Physical evidence
d. Chain of custody of evidence

Ans. C
81. The most effective way to reduce the number
of traffic accidents is to –

a. Arrest and prosecute traffic violators

b. Increase the premium of insurance and
decrease the car insurance liability to a
minimum
c. Frequent checks on all cars for mechanical
defects
d. All of the foregoing

Ans. A
82. The basic principle behind the selective
enforcement in the traffic control is –

a. Selection of traffic areas for strict enforcement

b. Concentration of enforcement activities as
peak traffic hours
c. A warning rather that a citation will act as
preventive for future violation
d. Direction of enforcement activities to those
points of greatest traffic danger

Ans. D
83. Produced by clandestine chemists with the
aim to manufacture compounds that produce
“the high” or euphoria of parent drugs and
avoid the penalties that would be levied
against those illegally trafficking the controlled
substance.

A. Narcotics substances
B. Psychotropic substances
C. Designer drugs
D. Mercury Drugs

Ans: C
84. In police stations, It is the record
of all crimes and complaints.

a. Police Blotter
b. Police Arrest
c. Booking Report
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. A
85. It is the conveying of persons, goods,
and things from one place to another.

a. Traffic
b. Transportation
c. Movement
d. Shipping

Ans. B
86. Excellent way of filling accidents report
for urban areas is –

a. Street designation
b. Numerical route
c. Road safety
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. A
87. If the accident has resulted to serious physical
injury, the most important thing for the
investigator to do in regard to the injured
person if no doctor at hand is –

a. Move him to a place where he may be

comfortable
b. Bring him to the hospital as quickly as possible
c. Give him first aid as necessary and call for an
ambulance
d. Ignore him, because medical care is not part of
the work of the investigator

Ans. C
88. It is the correct or proper choice of
words to convey a meaning.

a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. Words
d. None of the above

Ans. B
89. It is a customary little marks that
determines whether the sentence is clear
or has a doubtful meaning.

a. Words
b. Phrase
c. Punctuation marks
d. Numbers

Ans. C
90. If the fire is caused by flammable or
combustible liquids, such as kerosene,
gasoline, benzene, alcohol etc., It is said
to be classified as –

a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire

Ans. B
91. These are personalities that do not exist in
reality because they are only creations of
writers who focus inventing detectives stories
that may help entertain and/or educate
readers.

a. Private detectives
b. Government Investigators
c. Fictitious Investigators
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. C
92. For competent investigator, it is the key
to freedom from bondage of ignorance.

a. Training
b. Tools
c. Technique
d. Principle

Ans. A
93. In conducting an interview to a subject,
the interviewer always ask the subject
with a question answerable by yes or no,
this statement is –

a. Absolutely True
b. Absolutely False
c. Partly True
d. Partly false

Ans. B
94. This involves the process of allowing a
witness to select the primary suspect
from a group of chosen persons
( suspects and innocent persons).

a. Cartography
b. Portrait Parle
c. Rogues Gallery
d. Police line-up

Ans. D
95. An approach in reconstructing the crime
which requires the process of collecting
information first, analyze and evaluate it
before a theory is developed.

a. Deductive Approach
b. Inductive Approach
c. Analytical Approach
d. None of the foregoing

Ans. B
96. What is known as an “unimpeachable
witness” because it is not clouded by
faulty memory, prejudice, poor eyesight
and desire?

a. Ordinary witness
b. Expert witness
c. Physical evidence
d. Testimonial evidence

Ans. C
97. A kind of crime scene sketch which
picture the immediate scene only.

a. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of ground
c. Sketch of Details
d. Cross projection sketch

Ans. C
98. In the Philippine setting, the SOCO is
composed of how many members?

a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10

Ans. B
99. It is the tendency to increase the dose
of the drugs to produce the same effect
as to that of the original effect.

a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Physical dependence
d. Withdrawal syndrome

Ans. A
100. ________ is the skillful questioning of
a person who is reluctant to divulge
information concerning the offense
under investigation.

a. Instrumentation
b. Information
c. Interview
d. Interrogation

Ans. D
101. An evidence which links the suspects to
the crime scene or offense.

a. Corpus Delicti
b. Associative evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Documentary evidence

Ans. B
102. As the first officer to arrive at the crime
scene, you must retain and identify for
interview the person who first notify the police,
because you can gather investigative?

a. Investigation
b. Leads
c. Breakthrough
d. Modus operandi

Ans. B
103. Under the new drug law, the best
defense for drug abuse is?

a. Comrades
b. Colleagues
c. Family
d. Gangs

Ans. C
104. The first to arrive at the crime scene
and has the authority to preserve the
crime scene is the?

a. Beat patrol
b. SOCO
c. NBI
d. Chief PNP

Ans. A
105. Instead of using “proceed and utilize”,
use the word/s?

a. Proceed and go
b. Go and use
c. Go and exploit
d. Proceed and use

Ans. B
106. The most advance in sending a report.

a. Fax
b. Courier
c. Text
d. Air mail

Ans. A
107. The penalty of ____________ shall be
imposed upon any person who possesses 10
grams of Shabu.

a. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years

b. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
c. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
d. Life imprisonment

Ans. D
108. These are articles which assist the
investigator in locating the suspect.

a. Tracing evidence
b. Associative evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Testimonial evidence

Ans. A
109. Instead of using “dead body” on your report,
use the word/s?

a. Cadaver
b. Deceased
c. Departed
d. Corpse

Ans. B
110. In the year 2005, the Philippines was tagged
by the USA as the number one producer of?

a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium

Ans. C
111. When was the Anti-drug summit which was
attended by President Gloria M. Arroyo?

a. November 17, 2002

b. November 27, 2002
c. November 17, 2005
d. November 27, 2005

Ans. A
112. Is a phrase considered as a complete
sentence?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. Maybe

Ans. B
113. It is a sign of showing the point of origin of
fire.

a. Alligator pattern
b. Charring
c. Product of incombustible materials
d. None of the above

Ans. A
114. In dental examination, location of teeth,
position and ______ are the main
consideration.

a. Site
b. Spot
c. Direction
d. Place

Ans. C
115. A method of safe breaking by battering of the
top, bottom or sides of a safe with a chisel or
other metal cutter.

a. Burning
b. Bursting
c. Ripping
d. Carrying away

Ans. C
116. This is the removing or transferring of people,
livestock or property from fire scene or those
that are already directly affected by fire.

a. Evacuation
b. Rescue
c. Confinement
d. Ventilation

Ans. B
117. _______ smoke indicates that humid
materials are burning, such as hay, vegetable
fibers, etc..

a. Biting smoke
b. Black smoke
c. White smoke
d. Reddish-brown smoke

Ans. C
118. The world’s oldest cultivated plant as a
source of prohibited drugs.

a. Marijuana
b. Coca plant
c. Opium poppy plant
d. Caffeine

Ans. A
119. The process of giving training and practice in
the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge is called ___________.

a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Education
c. Traffic Enforcement
d. Traffic Economy

Ans. B
120. It is the derivative of Morphine.

a. Cocaine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine
d. Caffeine

Ans. B
 The study of major crimes and the
application of special investigative
techniques in its resolution define
 a. Criminal Investigation
 b. Special Crime Investigation
 c. Special Investigation
 d. Special Crime
 The official inquiries made by the police
on the facts and circumstance
surrounding the death of a person that
is expected to be unlawful is referred to
 a. official investigation
 b. homicide investigation
 c. murder investigation
 d. investigation
 – In police parlance this kind of robbery
in an open place following sudden
attack is called
 a. “Snatching cases”
b. Hold up cases”
 c. “Forcible entry”
d. frisk
 An organized conspiracy to
attempt or commit extortion or
coercion by use of force of
threats is termed
 a. Racketeering c. Extortion
 b. Robbery d. Booking
 • The following are the requisites of
self-defense. Which of the
following is not included?
 A. unlawful aggression
 B. reasonable necessity of the means
employed to repel it
 C. sufficient provocation on the part of
person defending himself
 D. lack of sufficient provocation on the
part of the person defending himself
 • The following are the reasons why
penal laws makes self-defense lawful
except
 A. quite impossibility for the state in all cases to
prevent aggression upon its citizens
 B. limited offer to protect person from attacks
 C. citizens cannot be conceived to succumb to
an unlawful aggression w/o offering any
resistance
 D. because the person assaulted does not
have sufficient tranquility of mind to think and
calculate
 A person is exempted from criminal
liability upon commission of wrong
doing if he/she is over nine of age and
under fifteen, if he/she acted without
discernment. Discernment means
 A. mental capacity
 B. the conduct of the offender
 C. manner the crime was committed
 D. mental capacity to fully appreciate
the consequences of an unlawful act
 • A person who acts under the compulsion of
irresistible force is exempted from criminal
liability. The force is said to be irresistible if it is
attended by
 A. violence to compel person to commit
crime
 B. physical force to compel another to
commit a crime
 C. intimidation to compel another to
commit the crime
 D. b and c
 E. a and b
 • The main focus of RA 8353 is
 A. carnal knowledge
 B. sexual assault
 C. traditional rape
 D. any of the above
 • Any person who will be engaging
in the business of prostitution by
enlisting the services of women
for the purpose shall be guilty of
 a. Prostitution c. white slave
trade
 b. corruption of minor d. abduction
 • The technique of safe crackers
that is called punching is also
known as
 a. Knobbing c. drilling
 b. Pulling d. knob-knocking
 • The method of a safe cracker
where he/she batter the top,
bottom, or sides of a safe with a
chisel and other metal cutter to
force open the safe is referred to
 a. Peeling c. drilling
 b. Ripping d. burning
 The enzyme found on semen that is
subjected to examination when
developed shows deep purple
color indicating presence of semen.
 a. acid pospates
 b. acid phosphates
 c. phosphatase
 d. phosphates
 Which of the following contains
DNA?
 a. Sperm c. urine
 b. Semen d. all of the above
HOMICIDE
INVESTIGATION
 It is the official inquiry made by the
police on the facts and
circumstances surrounding the death
of the person which is expected to be
criminal or unlawful.
 A. Death Investigation
 B. Murder Investigation
 C. Homicide Investigation
 D. Necropsy
 WHICH IS NOT CONSIDERED AS A
BRIDGE IN HOMICIDE INVESTIGATION
WHICH SHALL NEVER BE CROSSED?
A. the dead body has been moved.
B. when the cadaver has been embalmed.
C. When the dead body is buried
D. The third bridge is when the dead
person is burned or cremated.
 It is the process by which the
pathologist or the medico-legal
officer conducts an examination on
the cadaver to determine the exact
cause of death.
 A. Post-mortem exam
 B. Autopsy
 C. Both a and b
 D. neither a nor b
 Death exist when any of the
following vital body function no
longer performs. Except-

A. Respiratory system
B. Cardiac activity
C. Central nervous system
D. None of them
E. All of them
 It is a condition in which the cardiac
activity, breathing and functioning of
the nervous system may reach a low
level of activity that a homicide
investigator may be deceived into an
assumption of death.
 A. false death
 B. Suspended animation
 C. abnormal breathing pattern
 D. coma
METHODS OF IDENTIFYING
THE DECEASED
 Fingerprint
 Skeletal studies by an anthropologist
 Visual Inspection
 Personal Effects Tattoo marks
 Dental evidence by the forensic
Odontologists
 Clothing
 photograph
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. CONTUSION—an injury found in the substance of the skin
discoloration of the surface due to extravasations of blood caused by
the application of a blunt instrument. -
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. ABRASION—injury characterized by removal of the
specific epithelial layer of the skin brought about by
friction against a hard rough surface.
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. HEMATOMA—Extravasations of blood in the newly formed cavity
known as blood tumor caused by blunt instrument.
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. INCISED WOUND—produced by sharp-edged instrument like bob,
knife, broken glass, etc
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. STAB WOUND-—forcible application of a sharp- pointed with
sharp edges.
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. PUNCTURED WOUND—produced by sharp pointed instrument.
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. LACERATED WOUND—tearing of the skin due to forcible contact
with a blunt instrument, which the edges are irregular.
COMMON FORMS OF
EXTERNAL VIOLENCE
1. BULLET WOUNDS—caused by bullets, which are discharged from a
firearm.
BulletWounds
Entrance wound Exit wound
 Mercy killing or painless death of a
person suffering from incurable
disease to cut-short his suffering.
This is also known as
 EUTHANASIA
 A way of approximating the time of
death by considering the
temperature of the deceased.
 A. Algor mortis
 B. Rigor mortis
 C. Livor mortis
 D. all of them
ESTIMATES OF TIMES OF
DEATH
A. ALGOR MORTIS (Body Cooling)
 (1) GENERAL RULE — 1.5 degrees F loss per
hour when room temperature is about 70 F. Dr.
Simpson estimates 2.5 degrees an hour for the
first 6 hours, an average of 1.5 to 2.0 degrees F
over the first twelve hours. Drs. Rhodes,
Gandon and Turner- 1.5 degrees loss for the last
12 hours and 1 degree for the next 12 to 18
hours.
 (2) FACTORS OF COOLING—Body temperature
at the time of death, body size (fat slower; child-
faster) clothing or covering environmental
temperature (wind and high humidity increase
evaporation of water and hasten cooling)
emersion in water (good conductor).
B. RIGOR MORTIS (Stiffening of muscle tissues)
General rates (average clothed adult, observable
in the small muscles first. Detected within 2-4
hours, completed within 6-12 hours
C. LIVOR MORTIS or POST MORTEM LIVIDITY—It is
the blood inside the cadaver which settles down
on the body part nearest the ground and clots
due to the action of gravity. It forms a deep
brown or black discoloration on the skin. If the
dead body is resting on its back the livor mortis
or post mortem lividity will form at the back, so
with other parts of the body depending upon the
position at the time of death.
 What is the focal point of inquiry in
the investigation of homicide cases
involving mutilated remains?
 A. as to whether remains are of
animal or human origin
 B. as to the identity of the victim
 C. as to the age of the victim
 D. as to the time of recovery of the
remains
ROBBERY AND THEFT
INVESTIGATION
 The law on robbery in the Philippines
can be found on the following articles of
the Revised Penal Code:
 Article 293
 Who are guilty of robbery – Any
person who, with intent to gain, shall
take any personal property belonging to
another, by means of violence or
intimidation of any person, or using
force upon anything shall be guilty of
robbery.
 Article 294 – Robbery with violence or
intimidation of persons
 Article 295 – Robbery with physical
injuries committed in an uninhabited
place and by
 band or the use of firearm on a street.
 Article 297 – Attempted and frustrated
robbery committed under certain
circumstances.
 Article 298 – Execution of deeds by
means of violence or intimidation
 Article 299 – Robbery in an
inhabited house or public building
or edifice devoted to worship
 Article 302 – Robbery in an
uninhabited place or in a private
building
 Article 303 – Robbery of cereals,
fruits or firewood in uninhabited
place or private building.
 Any attack upon or seizure of any
vessel, or taking away of the whole
or part thereof of its cargo,
equipment or the personal
belonging of its complement or
passengers, irrespective of value
thereof, by means of violence
against or intimidation of person or
force upon things, committed by any
person, including a passenger or
member of the complements of said
vessel in Philippine waters
 The seizure of any person for
ransom, extortion or other unlawful
purposes, or the taking away of the
property of another by means of
violence against or intimidation of
persons or force upon things of
other unlawful means committed by
any person or any Philippine
highway.
 What law punishes piracy and
highway robbery?
 Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway
Robbery Law of 1974
 (Presidential Decree 532)
 Is the taking away by any means,
methods or scheme, without the
consent of the owner/raiser, of any
of the above animals (cow, carabao,
horse, mule or other domesticated
member of the bovine family)
whether or not for profit or gain, or
whether committed with or without
violence against or intimidation of
any person or force upon things.
 What law penalizes the crime of
cattle rustling?
 Anti-Cattle Rustling Law of 1974
 (Presidential Decree 533)
 It is the act of any person; who,
with intent to gain, for himself or for
another shall buy, posses, keep,
acquire, conceal, sell or in any
other deal on any articles, items,
objects or anything of value which
he knows to have been derived
form the proceeds of crime or
robbery or theft.
 Who among the following are
considered as types of robbers?
 A. the young and aggressive
 B. The amateurs and the
professionals
 C. The beginner and the hustler
 D. The poor and the rich
FACTS ON RAPE
RAPE IS A PUBLIC CRIME!

 REMEMBER! Rape is now considered a

public crime. This means that any person
who has knowledge of the crime may file a
complaint; consequently, even if the victim
withdraws her complaint, the government
(i.e. the police, prosecutor, fiscal, etc.) may
proceed with the case.
 RA 8353 The Rape Law of 1997
 Re-classified rape as crime vs. persons
 2 ways of committing rape:
– man has carnal knowledge of woman
under the following circumstances:
• Thru force, threat, or intimidation
• When offended party is deprived of
reason/unconscious
• Thru fraudulent machination/grave abuse of
authority
• When offended party is under 12 yrs or
demented
– By any person who, under any of
circumstances mentioned in paragraph 1,
shall commit an act of sexual assault by:
• inserting his penis into another persons
mouth or anal orifice or
• Inserting any instrument or object
(including a finger) into the genital or anal
orifice of another person
(Marriage between offender and offended
party extinguishes criminal action/penalty
but not if marriage is void ab initio)
THIS IS WHAT THE SUPREME COURT HAS
SAID ABOUT RAPE!!!

NOTE: The slightest

penetration of the outer labia is
sufficient. The absence of
sperm in the vagina does not
mean that no rape occurred
What is “Consent”?
NOTE: There is NO issue of
consent for child victims
under the age of 12 years
old. Children under 12
CANNOT give their consent
CONSENT: DEFINITION
 There is considerable confusion
regarding what is meant by
“consent”. Frequently, if the victim
did not actively resist by shouting
for help, fighting back or running
away, many investigators assume
that she willingly participated.
WHEN MARRIAGE IS
AVAILABLE
 Further, there can be no valid marriage
between an offender and any child victim as
the Family Code mandates that marriage may
only be entered into when the parties to the
marriage are at least 18 years old and have
the consent of their parents. Any marriage
entered into before a party reaches the age
of 18 is void from the beginning. A parent
cannot give consent to a child who may want
to marry before she turns 18 years old.
 EFFECT OF FORGIVENESS
 The rape law recognizes the legal marriage
between the victim and rapist as a valid
exception. When the offender is the proven
legal husband of the victim, the subsequent
forgiveness by his wife will extinguish the
criminal charge and its penalty.
 This exception is valid only for legal
marriages, however; the crime shall not be
expunged nor the penalty abated if the man
and woman are merely living together or if
the marriage is void ab initio (void from the
beginning).
VOID MARRIAGES
 Party is below 18 years old, even
with consent of parents
 Solemnizing officer is not authorized
to perform marriages, unless good
faith
 No marriage license
 Bigamous or polygamous marriages
 When there is a mistake as to
identity
 When you marry without registering
nullity of prior marriage or delivering
legitime to children
 RA 8505
Rape Victim Assistance and
Protection Act of 1998
 Establishment of rape crisis centers
 Women’s desks provided with
policewomen
 Preliminary investigation to be handled
by female prosecutors
 Protection of right to privacy
 Proceedings to be conducted in
language/dialect known to parties
 Rape shield
 It has become an increasingly powerful
forensic tool for identifying or eliminating
suspects, when biological evidence such
as saliva, skin, blood, hair, or semen is left
at the crime scene.
 Answer
 DNA which stands for Deoxyribonucleic
acid, the molecule that encodes genetic
information. DNA is a chemical substance
contained in cells, which determines each
person’s individual characteristics. An
individuals DNA is unique except in cases
of identical twins.
 It refers to evidence commonly recovered
from crime scenes in the form of hair,
tissue, bones, teeth, blood or other
bloodily fluids.
 Answer
 Biological Evedence
 In what country where DNA was used as
en evidence to prove the guilt of a
suspect?
 Answer
 DNA was first used to solve a crime that
occurred in England in 1986.
DNA is ___________________. Select the
best answer.
 A. The fundamental building block for an
individual’s genetic make-up.
 B. Different from cell to cell within a
person.
 C. The only material that can be used to
identify a perpetrator.
 D. All of the above answers are correct.
How is the DNA evidence similar to
fingerprints when used in suspect
identification? Select the best answer.
 A. The method of collection for fingerprints
and DNA is similar.
 B. Evidence from the crime scene is
compared to a known sample.
 C. 90% of all features must match for a
positive identification.
 D. None of the above answers are correct.
What is the purpose of the chain of custody
of evidence? Select the best answer.
 A. To establish a list of people who have
entered the crime scene.
 B. To establish the identities of those
people who have had physical possession
of the evidence.
 C. To show that correct police protocol and
procedure were followed.
 D. To determine correct evidence collection
and storage procedures.
 Which environmental conditions best
preserve DNA evidence? Select the best
answer.
 A. Moisture and mold best preserve DNA
evidence.
 B. Cold and freezing best preserve DNA
evidence.
 C. Storage in plastic bags best preserves
DNA evidence.
 D. All of them
 Fingerprint database is known as AFIS
and forensic ballistic have the IBIS. What
database may also use to refer to
electronic database of DNA profiles?
 answer
 CODIS- Combined DNA Index System

 The CODIS is an electronic database of

DNA profiles. These profiles are generated
from convicted offenders and/or crime
scene evidence. State statutes determine
which offenses are required to be included
in the database. The database also
includes a missing person index.
 Where can potential DNA evidence be
obtained from a victim of rape?

 A. Sexual assault examination results
 B. Around the bite mark
 C. Under fingernails
 D. All of the above answer are correct
The victim is requesting to use the restroom and
take a shower. What would you do in this
situation?

 A. Allow the victim to use the restroom and

shower
 B. Let the victim change clothes and shower
 C. Ask the victim to wait until transported to the
hospital, explain investigative procedures and
the importance of the evidence.
 D. None of the above answers are correct.
 The defense of the suspect that he was
present in a place other than the crime
scene during the estimated time when the
crime was committed is called
 a. defense c. allegation
 b. alibi d.
statement
 The method of sketch that uses two walls
in a room as fixed points, from which
distances are measured at right angles, is
called
 a. triangulation method
 b. base line method
 c. rectangular coordinates
 d. compass method
 A criminal investigation must necessarily
proceed as a legal inquiry by virtue of

 a. information c. complaint
 b. Miranda doctrine d. corpus delicti
 The trichotomy of investigation is
composing of 3 T’s namely:
 a. tools, techniques and timing
 b. training, tools and techniques
 c. techniques, training and teaching
 d. teaching, timing and techniques
THE TRICHOTOMY OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
 TRAINING is a vital ingredient in
developing a good and competent
investigator; a dynamic process that
never ends
 TOOLS – information, interview,
interrogation, instrumentation
 TECHNIQUE is the core of the many parts
of tactical strategy in investigation
 What does it mean if a person is a
"secretor"?

A. they sweat a lot at crime scenes due
to a severe perspiration problem
B. their saliva and other non-blood
fluids can be traced to a blood type
C. their bodily fluids are easily found at
crime scenes
D. they leave easy fingerprints to lift
because of excessive skin oil
 What is the least common blood type?
A. type O
B. type A
C. type B
D. type AB
 They are often referred as investigative
“short cut’ to solve cases, to recover stolen
property, and to make apprehensions.
 Answer
 Informants are an investigative “short cut’
to solve cases, to recover stolen property,
and to make apprehensions.
 A police blotter is a logbook with hard-
bound cover that contains the daily
register of all crime incident reports, official
summary of arrests, and other significant
events reported in a police station. It
measures _______________

 18” x 12”
 An act involving a harassing or threatening
behavior that an individual engages in
repeatedly, such as following a person,
appearing at a person's home or place of
business, making harassing phone calls,
leaving written messages or objects, or
vandalizing a person's property
 Stalking
 A person who is called to testify in court
because of his or her special skills or
knowledge; permitted to interpret facts and
give opinions about their significance to
facilitate judges understanding of complex
or technical matters
 EXPERT WITNESS
 Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles in
the body after death caused by chemical
changes in the muscle tissues. The onset
and speed at which rigor mortis will set in
varies according to a number of cir­
cumstances. On the average the rigor
mortis appearing on the neck and jaws
starts within how many hours?
 Answer
rigor mortis cycle
 The jaws and neck-2 to 4 hours
 The mid-torso and legs-4 to 8 hours
 The arms and remainder of the body-8 to
12 hours
 Body will remain in rigor mortis-l2 hours
 Rigor mortis will leave the body in the same
sequence as it began
 Cycle completed-36 hours
 What rule has been established in 1914
in the case of Weeks v United States.
Decision on this case established a rule
that federal courts may not accept
evidence obtained by unreasonable
search and seizure, regardless of this
relevance to a case.
 THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE: In 1914,
the case Weeks v United States was
reviewed by the US Supreme Court.
Decision on this case established a rule
that federal courts may not accept
evidence obtained by unreasonable
search and seizure, regardless of this
relevance to a case.
 These are sources of information who
come to the attention of the investigator
because of their involvement or familiarity
with a crime or incident
 answer
 Regular sources of information are those
who come to the attention of the
investigator because of their involvement
or familiarity with a crime or incident.
People generally considered as regular
sources are the victims/complainants,
witnesses, and suspects, including their
immediate relatives and close friends.
 The primary cultivated sources
of information
 Informants – those who voluntarily or
willingly provides information to the
criminal investigators and even offers to
be a witness
 Informers – those who use information as
means of livelihood since it is their job to
collect criminal facts (and sometimes
rumors) then sell them to law enforcement
 This is the kind of interview that is focused
only in obtaining data regarding the
personal background of the subject. This
is the simplest type of interview used in
criminal cases.
 BACKGROUND INTERVIEW: This is the
kind of interview that is focused only in
obtaining data regarding the personal
background of the subject. This is the
simplest type of interview used in criminal
cases. In accomplishing an interview
report.
 A questioning technique applied in
interrogation by getting the initial
admission of guilt then ask question by
starting at the very beginning of the
crime.
 answer
 CHRONOLOGICAL QUESTIONING: This
is the easiest technique. After getting the
initial admission of guilt, start at the very
beginning of the crime by asking: Whose
idea was this? or When did you get the
idea to do this?
 It is the process of recognizing, searching,
collecting, preserving, and documenting
physical evidence at the crime scene. It
covers the process of identifying and
interviewing witnesses and/or victims at
the crime scene, including on-the-spot
arrest of suspects.
 answer
 Crime scene investigation (CSI) is the process
of recognizing, searching, collecting, preserving,
and documenting physical evidence at the crime
scene. It covers the process of identifying and
interviewing witnesses and/or victims at the
crime scene, including on-the-spot arrest of
suspects. There are two primary objectives of
crime scene investigation - to establish what
happened and to identify the responsible
person/s.
 What is considered as the “golden hour” of
criminal investigation?
 The initial phase or the first 72 hours
(“Golden Hour”)
 Who are in charged of investigation in
case of Major Traffic Accidents such as
those that attract national media
attention or those that involve
numerous victims?
 PNP Highway Patrol Group Office
which shall then take the lead in the
investigation under the Special
Investigation Task Group (SITG) which
shall be activated to manage the case.
 Where could evidence on sexual offenses
be found?
 In the case of sexual offences the most
important trace evidence is often to be
found on the persons involved. It is
therefore important to treat these persons
in the same way as crime scenes as
regards the collection and preservation of
evidence. This is extremely important to
avoid contamination.
 Who shall handle the investigation of
sexual assaults specially when the victims
involve women and children?
 If the victim is a woman or child,
immediately refer the matter to the
WCPD (Women and Children Protection
Desk) for assistance in the handling of
the victim and to ensure that proper
procedures are observed.
 It is defined as more than a learned guess,
but less than a certainty. It is the product
of either deductive reasoning or inductive
reasoning or both. However, it should have
a very high order of probability.
Rational Theory
 What classical practice of gathering
information relies more on information that
is voluntarily given?
 A. American practice
 B. English system
 C. French system
 D. Russian system
Classical systems of gathering info:
 FRENCH SYSTEM - a practice of obtaining
information that relies heavily in buying
information; extensive use of informers
 ENGLISH SYSTEM - a practice of
gathering information that has little
regard/consideration on paid information;
the system that relies more on the info
provided voluntarily or willingly by patriots
or public spirited citizens (informants)
 This is an expressed acknowledgement by
the accused in criminal cases of the truth
of his guilt as to the crime charged or of
some of the essential part there of. There
is no implied confession for it is positive
and direct acknowledgement of guilt. It is
the best means of identifying criminal.
CONFESSION
 Republic Act No. 7659
Heinous Crimes Act

What are HEINOUS CRIMES?

Heinous crimes are grievous, odious and hateful

offenses, which by reason of their inherent or
manifest wickedness, viciousness atrocity and
perversity are repugnant and outrageous to the
common standards and norms of decency and
morality in a just, civilized and ordered society.
 What are the HEINOUS CRIMES?
The heinous crimes are:

1) Treason;
2) Qualified Piracy/Mutiny
3) Qualified Bribery
4) Parricide
5) Murder
6) Infanticide
7) Kidnapping and Serious Illegal Detention
8) Robbery with Homicide
9) Robbery with Rape
10) Robbery with Intentional Mutilation
11) Robbery with Arson
12) Destructive Arson
13) Rape committed by two or more persons
14) Rape committed with the use of deadly
weapon
15) Rape with Homicide or attempted Rape
with Homicide
16. Rape attended by any of the following
circumstances:
a) The victim thereby became insane;
b) The victim is less than 18 years old and the offender is
an ascendant, a step-parent, guardian, relative by
consanguinity or affinity within the 3rd civil degree, or
the common law spouse of the victim’s parent;
c) The victim is under custody of police or military
authorities;
d) The victim is a religious or a child less than 7 years old;
e) The rape was committed in full view of the husband,
parent, children or relative within the 3rd civil degree of
consanguinity;
f) The offender is afflicted with AIDS and is aware of it;
g) The offender is a member of the AFP or PNP or any law
enforcement agency; or
h) The victim thereby suffered permanent physical
mutilation.
17. Plunder

18. Violations of the Comprehensive

Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 as amended
when the quantity of drugs involved in the
violation is equal to or more than that
provided under Section 20

19. Carnapping where the owner, driver or

occupant of the carnapped motor vehicle is
killed or raped in the course of the
commission of carnapping or on the
occasion thereof.
 Republic Act No. 7080
(Anti-Plunder Law)
What is PLUNDER?

Plunder is the crime committed by “any

PUBLIC OFFICER who by himself or in
connivance with members of his family, relative
by consanguinity, business associates,
subordinate or other persons amasses,
accumulates or acquires ill-gotten wealth
through a COMBINATION or SERIES of overt
or criminal acts in the aggregate amount or total
value of at least P50, 000,000.00 (as amended
by R.A. No. 7659).
Who is a PUBLIC OFFICER under
R.A. No. 7080?
Any person holding any PUBLIC
OFFICE in the Government of the
Republic of the Philippines by virtue
of
(a) an appointment;
(b) election; or
(c) contract
Government of the Republic of the
Philippines includes:

 The National Government, and

 Any of its subdivisions, agencies or

instrumentalities, including GOCCs and
their subsidiaries.
 Who is a PERSON as defined
under R.A. No. 7080?
“PERSON” includes any NATURAL or
JURIDICAL person.

NATURAL PERSON – a human being

JURIDICAL PERSON – organizations, or

entities recognized by law as a person
such as LGUs, Registered Corporations
and Partnerships.
 What is an ILL-GOTTEN
WEALTH?

ILL-GOTTEN WEALTH means any asset,

property, business, enterprise or material
possession of any person, acquired by him
directly or indirectly through dummies,
nominees, agents, subordinates and/or
business associates.
What are the means of acquiring ILL-GOTTEN WEALTH
(Overt or Criminal Acts)?
ILL-GOTTEN WEALTH can be acquired through the
following means and similar schemes:

a) Misappropriation, conversion, misuse or malversation

or public funds or raids on the public treasury;

b) Receiving, directly or indirectly, any commission, gift,

share, percentage, kickbacks or any other form of
pecuniary benefit from any person and/or entity in
connection with any government contract or project or by
reason of the office or position of the public officer
concerned;

c) Illegal or fraudulent conveyance or disposition of

assets belonging to the Government;
d) Obtaining, receiving or accepting directly or indirectly
any share of stock, equity or any other form of interest or
participation including the promise of future employment in
any business enterprise or undertaking;

e) Establishing agricultural, industrial or commercial

monopolies or other combinations and/or implementation of
decrees and orders intended to benefit particular persons
or special interests; or

f) By taking undue advantage of official position, authority,

relationship, connection or influence to unjustly enrich
himself or themselves at the expense and to the damage
and prejudice of the Filipino people and the R.P.
What COURT has the JURISDICTION
to hear and try
PLUNDER CASES?

All PLUNDER CASES are within the original

jurisdiction of the SANDIGANBAYAN.
What is the PRESCRIPTIVE PERIOD of the
crime of PLUNDER?

A plunder case prescribes in 20

years. However, the right of the State to
recover properties unlawfully acquired by
public officers from them or from their
nominees or transferees is not barred by
prescription, laches, or estoppel (does not
prescribe)
 Amendments to R.A. 7080
Introduced by R.A. 7659
What amendments did R.A. 7659 introduce
to R.A. 7080?

R.A. 7659…

 AMOUNT - Lowered the amount from at least

P75 million (R.A. 7080) to at least P50 million.

 IMPOSABLE PENALTY - Changed the

imposable penalty of life imprisonment with
reclusion perpetua to death.
QUERY: Will the acquisition or accumulation of ill-gotten
wealth by a public official totaling to at least 50 million
pesos made through a single act constitute plunder?

Suggested Answer:
This has not been decided. In our
opinion, however, a single act does not
constitute plunder because the Anti-
Plunder Law provides that the acquisition
of ill-gotten wealth by a public official
must be made through a COMBINATION
or SERIES of acts.
 Republic Act No. 9160
Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2001

What is MONEY LAUNDERING?

Money laundering is a crime whereby

the proceeds of an UNLAWFUL ACTIVITY
are transacted, thereby making them
appear to have originated from legitimate
sources.
What constitutes an UNLAWFUL
ACTIVITY?
Sec. 3 (i) states that unlawful activity refers to any act or omission
or series or combination thereof involving or having relation to the
following:
1) Kidnapping for ransom;
2) Plunder;
3) Robbery and Extortion;
4) Jueteng and Masiao punished as illegal gambling under
P.D. 1602;
5) Piracy;
6) Qualified Theft;
7) Swindling or Estafa;
8) Smuggling;
9) Hijacking; and
10) many others.
 MONEY LAUNDERING is
committed by the following:
a) Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property
represents, involves, or relates to, the proceeds of any unlawful
activity, transacts or attempts to transact said monetary instrument or
property;

b) Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property

represents or involves the proceeds of any unlawful activity, performs
or fails to perform any act as a result of which he facilitates the offense
of money laundering;

c) Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property is

required under this Act to be disclosed and filed with the Anti-Money
laundering Council (AMLC), fails to do so.
 Jurisdiction Over Money
Laundering Cases
REGIONAL TRIAL COURT (RTC):
If the accused is a PRIVATE PERSON.

SANDIGANBAYAN:
When committed by PUBLIC OFFICERS
and PRIVATE PERSONS in conspiracy with
such public officers.
 Republic Act No. 3019
Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act
What are the CORRUPT PRACTICES of a
PUBLIC OFFICER?

1) Persuading, inducing or influencing another public officer

to perform an act constituting a violation of rules and
regulations duly promulgated by competent authority or
an offense in connection with the official duties of the
latter, or allowing himself to be persuaded, induced, or
influenced to commit such violation or offense.

2) Directly or indirectly requesting or receiving any gift,

present, share, percentage, or benefit for himself or for
any other person, in connection with any contract or
transaction between the Government and any other party,
wherein the public officer in his official capacity has to
intervene under the law.
3) Directly or indirectly requesting or receiving any gift, present or
other pecuniary or material benefit, for himself or for another,
from any person for whom the public officer, in any manner or
capacity, has secured or obtained, or will secure or obtain, any
Government permit or license, in consideration for the help given
or to be given.

4) Accepting or having any member of his family accept

employment in a private enterprise which has pending official
business with him during the pendency thereof or within one year
after its termination.

5) Causing any undue injury to any party, including the

Government, or giving any private party any unwarranted benefits,
advantage or preference in the discharge of his official,
administrative or judicial functions through manifest partiality,
evident bad faith or gross inexcusable negligence.
6) Neglecting or refusing, after due demand or request, without
sufficient justification, to act within a reasonable time on any
matter pending before him for the purpose of obtaining directly or
indirectly, from any person interested in the matter some
pecuniary or material benefit or advantage, or for purpose or
favoring his own interest or giving undue advantage in favor of or
discriminating against any other interested party.

7) Entering on behalf of the Government, into any contract or

transaction manifestly and grossly disadvantageous to the same,
whether or not the public officer profited or will profit thereby.

8) Directly or indirectly having financial or pecuniary interest in

any business, contract or transaction in connection with which he
intervenes or takes part in his official capacity, or in which he is
prohibited by the Constitution or by any law from having any
interest.
9) Directly or indirectly becoming interested, for personal gain, or
having a material interest in any transaction or act requiring the
approval of a board, panel or group of which he is a member, and
which exercises discretion in such approval, even if he votes
against the same or does not participate in the action of the
board, committee, panel or group.

10) Knowingly approving or granting any license, permit, privilege

or benefit in favor of any person not qualified for or not legally
entitled to such license, permit, privilege or advantage, or of a
mere representative or dummy of one who is not so qualified or
entitled.

11) Divulging valuable information of a confidential character,

acquired by his office or by him on account of his official position
to unauthorized persons, or releasing such information in
advance of its authorized release date.
Is a Christmas or birthday gift received by a public
officer considered a corrupt practice?

ANSWER:

No if the gift was –

(a) unsolicited (given by the giver voluntarily and not

demanded by the public officer), and

(b) of small or insignificant value, and

(C) was given as a mere token of gratitude or friendship

according to local customs or usage (Sec. 14).
 Prohibition on PRIVATE
INDIVIDUALS:
1) Itis unlawful for ANY PERSON having family or close personal relation
with any public official to capitalize or exploit or take advantage of such
family or close personal relation by directly or indirectly requesting or
receiving any present, gift or material or pecuniary advantage from any
other person having some business, transaction, application, request or
contract with the Government, in which such public official has to intervene.

FAMILY RELATION includes the SPOUSE or RELATIVES by consanguinity or

affinity in the 3rd CIVIL DEGREE.

CLOSE PERSONAL RELATION includes close personal relationship, social

and fraternal connections, and professional employment all giving rise to
intimacy which assures free access to such public officer.

2) It is unlawful for any person knowingly to induce or cause any public

official to commit any of the CORRUPT PRACTICES.
 Prohibition on CERTAIN
RELATIVES:
It is unlawful for the SPOUSE or for ANY
RELATIVE, by consanguinity or affinity, within
the 3rd civil degree, of the
1) President of the Philippines,
2) Vice President of the Philippines,
3) Senate President, and
4) House Speaker
to INTERVENE directly or indirectly, in any
business, transaction, contract or application
with the Government (subject to the exceptions
provided for under Sec. 5).
 Prohibition on MEMBERS OF
CONGRESS:
It is unlawful for any member of the
Congress, during his/her term of office to
ACQUIRE or RECEIVE any personal
pecuniary interest in any specific business
enterprise which will be directly and
particularly favored or benefited by any
law or resolution AUTHORED by him/her
previously approved or adopted by the
Congress during his/her term.
Statement of Assets and Liabilities
Every public officer MUST file-

WHAT?
A detailed and sworn statement of assets and liabilities,
amounts and sources of his/her income, amounts of
his/her personal and family expenses, and the amount of
income taxes paid.

WHEN?
1) within 30 days after assuming office,
2) on or before April 15 of every year,
3) upon the expiration of his/her term of office, or
4) upon his/her resignation or separation from office.
What COURT has the jurisdiction to try
complaints for violations of R.A. 3019?

SANDIGANBAYAN
has the original jurisdiction to
hear and decide complaints for
Graft and Corruption.
Is a public officer who is being investigated or is facing
charges of graft and corruption allowed to resign or
retire during the pendency of the investigation or the
case against him?

No public officer is allowed to resign or

retire pending an investigation, criminal or
administrative or pending a prosecution
against him, for any offense under R.A.
No. 3019 or under the provisions of the
RPC on bribery (Sec. 12).
What should be done to the public officer accused
of violation of R.A. No. 3019 during the pendency
of the investigation or during the trial of his case?

The public officer who is under

investigation or is being tried for graft and
corruption should be SUSPENDED FROM
OFFICE pending the investigation or trial
of his case.
Is a public officer who was found guilty of the
charges entitled to his retirement or
gratuity benefits?

ANSWER:

No. Should the public officer be convicted

by final judgment, he loses all retirement
or gratuity benefits under the law
 What about if the public officer has already
received his retirement or gratuity benefits and he
was convicted of the charges?

The said convicted public officer who was

found guilty of the charges must return or
restitute the amount received as
retirement or gratuity benefit to the
Government.
 What about if the public officer was found
INNOCENT of the charges against him?

ANSWER:

The public officer is acquitted, he is

entitled to reinstatement and to the
salaries and benefits which he failed to
receive during suspension.
 Republic Act No. 7610
(Anti-Child Abuse Law)
Who are children under the Act?

“Children” refers to persons:

a) Below 18 years of age, or

b) Over 18 years of age but are unable to fully

take care of themselves or protect themselves
from abuse, neglect, cruelty, exploitation or
discrimination because of a physical or mental
disability or condition (Sec. 3).
 What is CHILD ABUSE?
CHILD ABUSE refers to the maltreatment, whether habitual or
not, of the child which includes any of the following acts:

a) Psychological and physical abuse, neglect, cruelty, sexual abuse

and emotional maltreatment;

b) Any act by deeds or words which debases, degrades or demeans

the intrinsic worth and dignity of a child as a human being;

c) Unreasonable deprivation of his basic needs for survival, such as

food and shelter; or

d) Failure to immediately give medical treatment to an injured child

resulting in serious impairment of his growth and development or
his permanent incapacity or death.
 Offenses Under the Act
1) CHILD PROSTITUTION and OTHER CHILD ABUSE

Who are considered “children exploited in prostitution

and other sexual abuse”?

Children, whether male or female, who for

money, profit or any other consideration or due to the
coercion or influence of any adult, syndicate or group,
indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct, are
deemed to be children exploited in prostitution and other
sexual abuse (Sec. 5).
Who are liable for Child Prostitution and other Child
Abuse?

The following are punished with reclusion temporal in its

medium period to reclusion perpetua:

1) Those who engage in or promote, facilitate or induce child

prostitution which include, but are not limited to the following:

a) Acting as procurer of a child prostitute;

b) inducing a person to be a client of a child prostitute by

means of written or oral advertisements or other similar means;
 c) taking advantage of influence or relationship to procure a
child as a prostitute;

d) Threatening or using violence towards a child to engage him

as a prostitute; or

e) Giving monetary consideration, goods or other pecuniary to

a child with the intent to engage such child in prostitution.

2) Those who commit the act of sexual intercourse or lascivious

conduct with a child exploited in prostitution or subjected to other
sexual abuse;

3) Those who derive profit or advantage there from, whether as a

manager or owner of the establishment where the prostitution
takes place, or of the sauna, disco, bar, resort, place of
entertainment or establishment serving as a cover or which
engages in prostitution in addition to the activity for which the
license has been issued to said establishment.
 ACTS PUNISHABLE AS AN ATTEMPT TO
COMMIT CHILD PROSTITUTION:
Who are guilty of attempt to commit child
prostitution?

1) Any person who, not being a relative of the child is found

ALONE with the child inside the room or cubicle of a house,
an inn, hotel, motel, pension house, apartelle or other
similar establishments, vessel, vehicle or any other hidden
or secluded area under circumstances which would lead a
reasonable person to believe that the child is about to be
exploited in prostitution and other sexual abuse; and

2) Any person who receives services from a child in a sauna

parlor, massage clinic, health club and other similar
establishments.
2) CHILD TRAFFICKING

Consummated Act of CHILD TRAFFICKING:

Who are liable for consummated act of child

trafficking?

Any person who engages in trading and

dealing with children including, but not limited to,
the act of buying and selling of a child for money,
or for any other consideration, or barter.
Attempt to Commit CHILD TRAFFICKING:

There is an attempt to commit Child Trafficking:

1) When a child travels alone to a foreign country without

valid reason therefor and without clearance issued by the
DSWD or written permission or justification from the child’s
parents or legal guardian;

2) When a pregnant mother executes an affidavit of

consent for adoption for a consideration;

3) When a person, agency, establishment or child-caring

institution recruits women or couples to bear children for
the purpose of child trafficking;
4) When a doctor, hospital, or child clinic official or
employee, nurse, midwife, local civil registrar or
any other person simulates birth for the purpose of
child trafficking; or

5) When a person engages in the act of finding

children among low-income families, hospitals,
clinics, nurseries, day-care centers, or other child-
caring institutions who can be offered for the
purpose of child trafficking.
3) OBSCENE PUBLICATIONS AND INDECENT SHOWS

Who are liable?

a) Any person who hires, employs, uses, persuades, induces, or

coerces a child:

1) To perform in obscene exhibitions and indecent

shows, whether live or in video;

2) To pose or model in obscene publications or pornographic

materials.

b) Any ascendant, guardian, or person entrusted in any capacity

with the care of the child who causes and/or allows a child to be
employed or to participate in an obscene play, scene, act, movie
or show or in any other acts covered by Sec. 9 of R.A. 7160.
 Other ACTS of NEGLECT, ABUSE, CRUELTY or
EXPLOITATION and other Conditions Prejudicial to the
Child’s Development:
1) Committing any other acts of child abuse, cruelty or
exploitation or be responsible for other conditions
prejudicial to the child’s development;

2) Keeping or having in his company a minor, 12 years or

under or who is 10 years or more younger than his
junior in any public place or private place, hotel, motel,
beer joint, discothèque, cabaret, pension house, sauna
or massage parlor, beach and/or other tourist resort or
similar places;

3) Inducing, delivering or offering a minor to anyone

prohibited to keep or have in his company a minor as
provided in the preceding paragraph;
4) Allowing by any person, owner, manager or one
entrusted with the operation of any public or private
place or accommodation, whether for occupancy,
food, drink, or otherwise, including residential
places any minor;

5) Using, coercing, forcing or intimidating a street

child or any other child to:
a) Beg or use begging as a means of living;
b) Act as conduit or middleman in drug
trafficking or pushing; or
c) Conduct any illegal activities.
Who may FILE a COMPLAINT for a VIOLATION of
R.A. 7610?

The complaint may be filed by any of the following:

1) Offended party;
2) Parents or guardians;
3) Ascendant or collateral relative within the third degree of
consanguinity;
4) Officer, social worker or representative of a licensed
child-caring institution;
5) Officer, social worker of the DSWD;
6) Barangay Chairman;
7) At least 3 concerned responsible citizens where the
violation occurred.
 Republic Act No. 6538
Anti-Carnapping Act of 1972

What is CARNAPPING?
It is the taking, with intent to gain, of
a motor vehicle belonging to another
without the latter’s consent, or by means
of violence against or intimidation of
persons, or by using force upon things.
 DEFINITION OF TERMS:
MOTOR VEHICLE – is any vehicle propelled by any power other
than muscular power using the public highways
EXCEPT the following:

A] Road rollers; Bulldozers;

Trolley cars; Graders;
Street-Sweepers; Fork-lifts;
Sprinklers; Amphibian Trucks, and
Lawn mowers; Cranes

NOT USED ON PUBLIC HIGHWAYS,

B] Vehicles, which run only on rails or tracks, and

C] Tractors, trailers and traction engines of all kinds

used exclusively for agricultural purposes.
What constitutes unlawful taking in
the crime of CARNAPPING?

UNLAWFUL TAKING in CARNAPPING takes

place when the owner or juridical
possessor does not give his consent to the
taking, or, if consent was given, it was
vitiated (People vs. Tan, 323 SCRA 30).
TAKING OF A MOTOR VEHICLE can be:

1) CARNAPPING under R.A. 6538, or

2) QUALIFIED THEFT under Art. 310 of the RPC,

or

3) ESTAFA under Art. 315 paragraph 1 (b) of the

RPC.
 CARNAPPING vs. QUALIFIED THEFT vs.
ESTAFA
CARNAPPING QUALIFIED THEFT ESTAFA

1)Taking A] Art. 310, RPC 1) Physical and Juridical

1)Taking possession of the motor
2) with intent to gain,
2) with intent to gain vehicle was transferred to
3) of a motor vehicle 3) of a motor vehicle
the accused;
4) belonging to another 4) belonging to another
5) (a) without the 5) Without the latter’s consent (e.g. agency to sale)
latter’s 6) But without violence against 2) He misappropriated the
or intimidation of persons or same.
consent, or force upon things.
(b) by means of
B] Jurisprudence
violence against
1) Material or physical
or intimidation of possession of the motor
person, or vehicle was transferred to the
accused;
(c) by using force (e.g. borrowed)
upon things. 2) He misappropriated the
same.
 Republic Act No. 6235
ANTI-HIJACKING LAW
How is the crime of HIJACKING committed?

Hijacking is committed by:

1) Compelling the pilot to change in course or destination

of a DOMESTIC AIRCARFT;
2) Seizing or usurping the control of a DOMESTIC AIRCAFT
while it is in flight;
3) Compelling a FOREIGN AIRCRAFT to land in the
Philippine territory; and
4) Seizing or usurping the control of the FOREIGN
AIRCRAFT while it is within Philippine territory.
When is an aircraft considered
in flight?

An aircraft is considered in flight from the

moment all its external doors are closed
following embarkation until any of such
doors is opened for disembarkation.
 Other acts punished by
R.A. No. 6235:

Shipping, loading, or carrying in any

PASSENGER AIRCRAFT operating as a
public utility within the Philippines any
explosive, flammable, corrosive or
poisonous substance or material.
 Republic Act No. 4200
Anti-Wire Tapping Law
What are the acts punished as wire-tapping?
1) Tapping any wire or cable, or
2) Using any other device or arrangement,
3) To secretly overhear, intercept, or record a
4) Private communication/conversation or
spoken word
5) Without the knowledge or consent of all the
parties
Private Communications Can
Be Waived by SHOUTING
 Presidential Decree No. 533
Anti-Cattle Rustling Law of 1974
What is “CATTLE RUSTLING”?

CATTLE RUSTLING is the -

1) Taking away by any means, methods or scheme,
without the consent of the owner/raiser, of a LARGE
CATTLE whether or not for profit or gain, or whether
committed with or without violence against or
intimidation of any person or force upon things;

2) Killing of a large cattle, or taking its meat or hide

without the consent of the owner/raiser.
 What is a LARGE CATTLE?

LARGE CATTLE includes the following:

1) Cow;
2) Carabao;
3) Horse;
4) Mule;
5) Ass; or
6) Other domesticated member of the bovine
family.
 WHO is considered as an
OWNER/RAISER of a Large Cattle?

OWNER/RAISER -
includes the herdsman, caretaker,
employee or tenant of any firm or entity
engaged in the raising of large cattle or
other persons in lawful possession of such
large cattle.
 Duty of OWNER/RAISER to
Register the LARGE CATTLE:
The owner/raiser is duty-bound to register the large cattle
belonging to him –
WHEN?
before the large cattle attains the age of 6 months.
WHERE?
with the office of the City/Municipality where the
owner/raiser resides.

After registration, a CERTIFICATE of OWNERSHIP is

issued to the owner/raiser.
 Permit to BUY and SELL
Large Cattle:
Any person, partnership, association, corporation
or entity engaged in the business of buying and
selling large cattles MUST first secure a permit
from -
(a) the Provincial Commander, and
(b) the City/Municipal Treasurer of the
place of residence of such person,
partnership, association, corporation or
entity.
 Clearance for SHIPMENT of
LARGE CATTLE:

Any person, partnership, association,

corporation or entity desiring to ship or
transport large cattle, its hides, or meat,
from one province to another MUST
secure a PERMIT from the Provincial
Commander.
PRESUMPTION OF CATTLE
RUSTLING:

FAILURE to exhibit or show the required

PERMIT or CLEARANCE by any person
having in his possession, control or
custody of large cattle is a PRIMA FACIE
EVIDENCE that the large cattle in his
possession, control, or custody is the fruit
of the crime of cattle rustling.
 Presidential Decree No. 1612
Anti-Fencing Law of 1979
What is “fencing”?

“Fencing” is the act of any person who,

a) with intent to gain for himself or for another,

b) BUY, RECEIVE, POSSESS, KEEP, ACQUIRE, CONCEAL,

SELL, or DISPOSE of, or BUYS and SELLS, or in any other
manner deal in

c) any article, item, object or anything of value

d) which HE KNOWS, or SHOULD BE KNOWN TO HIM, e) to have

been derived from the proceeds of the crime of robbery or theft.
 Who is a “FENCE”?
“FENCE” includes any

person,
firm,
association,
corporation or partnership, or
other organizations

who/which commits the act of fencing.

 Presumption of FENCING:

Mere possession of any goods, article,

item, object, or anything of value which
has been the subject of robbery or
thievery is a PRIMA FACIE evidence of
fencing.
 Presidential Decree No. 532
Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law
What is PIRACY?
Any attack upon or seizure of any vessel, or the taking
away of the whole or part thereof, or its cargo,
equipment, or the personal belonging of its complement
or passengers, irrespective of the value thereof, by
means of violence against or intimidation of persons or
force upon things.

Who may commit PIRACY?

Any person, including a passenger or member of the
crew/complement of the vessel.

Where may PIRACY be committed?

Only in Philippine waters.
 PIRACY
P.D. 532 VERSUS Art. 122 of the RPC

P.D. No. 532 ARTICLE 122, RPC

1) Piracy can only be committed 1) Piracy can be committed both
on Philippine territorial waters. on the high seas and on Philippine
territorial waters.

2) Can be committed by ANY 2) Can only be committed by a

PERSON including a passenger or person who is not a passenger nor
member of the complement of the member of the complement of the
vessel. vessel.
What is HIGHWAY ROBBERY or BRIGANDAGE?

1) The seizure of any person for ransom,

extortion or other unlawful purposes, or

2) Taking away of the property of another by

means of violence against or intimidation of
persons or force upon things or other
unlawful means.

WHERE?

On any PHILIPPINE HIGHWAY.

What is a PHILIPPINE HIGHWAY?

Any road, street, passage, highway and

bridges or other parts thereof, or railways
or railroad within the Philippines used by
persons, or vehicles, or locomotives or
trains for the movement or circulation of
persons or transportation of goods,
articles, or property or both.
What is the purpose of the accused in Highway
Robbery or Brigandage?

The purpose of brigandage is

INDISCRIMINATE HIGHWAY ROBBERY (i.e.
victim could be any person or persons that passes
through a Philippine Highway).
If the purpose is only a particular
robbery (i.e. there is a predetermined or particular
victim), the crime is only Robbery or
Robbery in band if there are at least 4
armed participants.
Is the number of perpetrators an essential
element of Highway Robbery or
Brigandage?

No. The perpetrator could be a single

person or a group of persons not necessarily
at least four (4) armed persons.
Is the fact that Robbery was committed on
Philippine Highway makes it Highway Robbery or
Brigandage?

No. The mere fact that robbery was committed on

Philippine Highway does not give rise to Highway
Robbery or Brigandage. The intent of
indiscriminate highway robbery must be present.
 Republic Act No. 8049
Anti-Hazing Act
What is HAZING?

It is an initiation rite or practice as a

prerequisite for admission into membership in a
fraternity, sorority or organization by placing the
recruit, neophyte or applicant in some
EMBARRASSING or HUMILIATING situations
such as forcing him to do menial, silly, foolish
and similar tasks or activities or otherwise
subjecting him to physical or psychological
suffering or injury.
Take NOTE:

The term “ORGANIZATION” include any club, or

the AFP, PNP, PMA, or officer and cadet corps of
the Citizen’s Military Academy (CMT), or Citizen’s
Army Training (CAT).
 Republic Act No. 7832
Anti-Electricity Pilferage Act
Punishes:

1) Illegal use of electricity

- e.g. illegal connection, tampering,
use of jumpers
2) Theft of electric power transmission lines
and materials.
 What is “MURO-AMI”?
It is the act of fishing with gear
method or other physical or mechanical
acts that destroy coral reefs, sea grass
beds and other fishery marine life habitat

It is punishable under The Philippine

Fisheries Code of 1998 and R.A. 8550.
 Republic Act No. 7438
Impose penalties to the following:

1) Any arresting public officer or employee, or any investigating

officer who fails to inform any person arrested, detained or
under custodial investigation of his right to remain silent and to
have a competent and independent counsel preferably of his
own choice;

2) Any pubic officer or employee or anyone acting upon orders of

such investigating officer or in his place, who fails to provide a
competent and independent counsel to a person arrested,
detained or under custodial investigation for the commission of
an offense if the latter cannot afford the services of his own
counsel;

3) Any person who obstruct, prevent or prohibits any lawyer, any

member of the immediate family of a person arrested, detained
or under custodial investigation, or any medical doctor or priest
or religious minister chosen by him or by any member of his
immediate family or by his counsel, from visiting and conferring
privately with him, or from examining and treating him, or from
ministering to his spiritual needs, at any hour of the day, or in
urgent cases, of the night.
 Republic Act No. 8177
Act Designating Death By Lethal Injection as the
Method of Carrying Out Capital Punishment

How should DEATH PENALTY be executed?

The death sentence shall be executed by

means of lethal injection.

When should the death sentence be carried out?

The sentence shall be carried out not

earlier than one (1) year nor later than eighteen
(18) months after the judgment has become
final and executory.
 Batas Pambansa Bilang. 22
Anti-Bouncing Check Law
Who is liable for violation of B.P. 22?

A] Any person who makes or draws and issues any check

to apply on account or value, knowing at the time of
issue that he does not have sufficient funds in or credit
with the drawee bank for the payment of such checks in
full upon its presentment, which check is subsequently
dishonored by the drawee bank.

FOR WHAT REASON?

For insufficiency of funds or credit or it would have been

dishonored for the same reason had not the drawer,
without any valid reason, ordered the bank to stopt
payment.
B] Any person who made or drew and issued a check who
failed to keep sufficient funds or to maintain a credit to
cover the full amount of the check if said check was
presented within a period of 90 days from the date
appearing thereon, for which reason it is dishonored by
the bank.

ELEMENTS OF THE CRIME:

1) The accused makes, draws or issues any check to apply on account

or value.

2) The check is subsequently dishonored by the drawee bank for

insufficiency of funds or credit or it would have been dishonored for the
same reason had not the drawer, without any valid reason, ordered the
bank to stop payment.

3) The accused KNOWS at the time of issuance that he or she does

not have sufficient funds in or credit with the drawee bank for the
payment of the check in full upon its presentment.
 Republic Act No. 7877
Anti-Sexual Harassment Act

What is SEXUAL
HARASSMENT?

Work, education or training-

related sexual harassment is
committed by -
WHOM?
By an

1) EMPLOYER,
2) EMPLOYEE,
3) MANAGER,
4) SUPERVISOR,
5) AGENT OF THE EMPLOYER,
6) TEACHER,
7) INSTRUCTOR,
8) PROFESSOR,
9) COACH,
10) TRAINER, or
11) ANY OTHER PERSON HAVING AUHTORITY,
INFLUENCE OR MORAL ASCENDANCY OVER ANOTHER in a
work or training or education environment.
IN WHAT WAY?

By demanding, requesting or otherwise

requiring any SEXUAL FAVOR from the other,
regardless of whether the demand, request or
requirement for submission is accepted by the
victim.