Eoc Review
Eoc Review
Eoc Review
Background Information:
Carbohydrates:
1. Elements- CHO (carbon, hydrogen & oxygen)
2. Monomer- (building block)- Monosaccharaides
3. Function- energy & structure
4. exs- glucose - monosaccharide, sucrose (table sugar) disaccharide, starch & glycogen - polysaccharide
Lipids:
1. Elements- CHOP (carbon, hydrogen & oxygen,
Phosphorous)
2. Monomer- None (just composed of 1 glycerol and 3 fatty
acids)
3. Function- fat & oil give energy, cholesterol and
phospholipid for membrane, steroids= hormones
4. exs- fats, oils, waxes, steroids, cholesterol &
phospholipid
Proteins:
1. Elements- CHONS (carbon, hydrogen & oxygen, Nitrogen,
Sulphur)
2. Monomer- amino acids (20 total)
3. Function- structural, protein channels, enzymes speed up
reactions, insulin
4. exs- collagen & hemoglobin
Nucleic Acids:
1. Elements- CHOP (carbon, hydrogen & oxygen,
Phosphorous)
2. Monomer- nucleotide (sugar, phosphate & a base- A, T, C
& G)
3. Function- store & transmit hereditary information
4. exs- DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid & ribonucleic acid)
Cells: Prokaryotes (bacteria): lack a nucleus, few organelles; Eukaryotes (everything else: including plants & animals): have a nucleus
& many organelles
Plant cells: Special Features: have a central vacuole (store water), chloroplasts (carry out photosynthesis), and a cell wall made of
cellulose
Animal cells: Special Features: centrioles (for division), NO CELL WALL, NO CHLOROPLASTS!
ALL CELLS: have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, genetic material (DNA or RNA), and ribosomes (site of protein synthesis)
QUESTIONS:
1. The diagram to the right is the monomer of nucleic acids. What is this monomer?
a. amino acid
b. saccharide
c. 3 fatty acids & glycerol
d. nucleotide
Nitrogen (N) is used and reused by various organisms and processes as it cycles through the environment.
5. Study the statement above. Nitrogen is NOT a part of which of these biomolecules?
a. enzyme
b. amino acid
c. nucleic acid
d. carbohydrates
d. carbohydrates
12. Refer to the information above. To which group do RNA molecules belong?
a. nucleic acids
b. proteins
c. lipids
d. carbohydrates
d. nucleic acids
20. Refer to the information and graphic above. The guard cells determine whether or not the stomatal pores are open. When guard
cells absorb water, they swell, and the pores open. When guard cells lose water, they shrink, and the pores close. When stomata are
open the plant loses water through the pores in a process known as transpiration. What is the most likely effect on the plant if the
guard cells stay swollen on a hot day?
a. The plant will turn yellow.
c. The plant will lose its leaves.
b. The plant will wilt.
d. The plants roots will grow.
21. Suzanne is looking at different types of muscle tissue using a microscope. She notices that cells from a stomach muscle (A) look
smooth and spindle-shaped, while tissue from leg muscle appears to be striped (B). What is the reason that the two tissue types look
different?
Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
28. RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?
a. carbohydrate
b. lipid
c. nucleic acid
d. protein
29. This diagram shows an enzyme-substrate complex.
c. enzyme
d. complex
30. What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction?
a. The reaction rate will increase.
b. The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained.
c. The reaction rate will decrease.
d. The reaction will stop.
Background Information:
Cell Transport:
When molecules move from a high to low concentration it is called moving DOWN the concentration gradient.
When molecules move from a low to high concentration it is called moving AGAINST the concentration gradient.
When the concentration of a solute is the same throughout a system, the system is at EQUILIBRIUM.
Stages 1 & 2
Stage 3
QUESTIONS:
Cell organelles carry out specific metabolic processes.
1. Study the statement above. Which cell organelle manages the process by which proteins are sorted and packaged to be
sent where they are needed?
a. ribosomes
b. lysosomes
c. Golgi bodies
d. vacuoles
2. Study the statement above. Which cell organelle is responsible for storing enzymes and other materials needed by the
cell?
a. ribosomes
b. vacuoles
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
3. Study the statement above. Which cell organelle manages the process by which proteins are assembled based on DNA
instructions?
a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. ribosomes
d. vacuoles
4. Study the statement above. Which cell organelle manages the process by which energy stored in food molecules is
transformed into usable energy for the cell?
a. lysosomes
b. golgi bodies
c. mitochondria
d. ribosomes
5. Study the statement above. Which cell organelle manages the process by which worn out organelles, food particles, and
engulfed viruses or bacteria are digested?
a. ribosomes
b. lysosomes
c. vacuoles
d. golgi bodies
6. Which of these is not an advantage gained by organisms which reproduce sexually?
a. Genetic recombination created genetic diversity within a species.
b. Some percentage of organisms within a species will be likely to survive and reproduce despite harsh environmental
conditions.
c. Genetic diversity reduces the risk of species extinction caused by hard environmental conditions.
d. Genetic diversity weakens a species overall ability to survive harsh environmental conditions.
7. A fertilized egg created through sexual reproductiona. has a combination of genetic material that is unique in the species
b. is genetically identical to other eggs of the same parents
c. is genetically identical to the parents
d. contains genetic material from only one parent
8. Organisms reproduce asexually in a variety of ways. A bacterium reproduces by making a copy of its chromosome,
growing larger, then dividing into two separate, genetically identical cells. This process is called-
a. regeneration
b. binary fission
c. vegetative reproduction
d. budding
Cellular respiration:
Plants produce more oxygen during photosynthesis than they use in cellular respiration. What happens to the excess
oxygen produced during photosynthesis?
a. It is used as an energy source by plant cells.
b. It is released into the air and is used by other organisms for respiration.
c. It is converted into heat energy.
d. It is a waste product which is never reused.
11. Which of these is inhaled by animals, then used in respiration?
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. nitrogen
d. water
12. One of the products of photosynthesis is glucose (C6H12O6). Which of the following statements about the production and
use of this molecule is false?
a. Plants use the energy from glucose to convert nutrients to body tissues and grow larger.
b. Glucose that is not immediately used by the plant is stored for later use.
c. Plants use the energy from glucose to manufacture a variety of plant products.
d. Glucose that is not immediately used by the plant is lost as waste material.
13. Tigers, goldfish, peacocks, and humans all reproduce sexually. Which statement is true about sexual reproduction?
a. It is not a factor scientists use to define different species.
b. It involves the joining of an egg and sperm into one cell.
c. The offspring are genetically the same as their parents.
d. Sexual reproduction can only take place by internal fertilization.
14. Jackson is growing a bean plant in a pot. One day Jackson notices that the plant is wilting. He waters the bean plant and
within a few minutes the plant begins to perk up. This is because the plant has taken up water by osmosis. At what structural
level does osmosis occur?
a. organs
b. tissues
c. cells
d. organ systems
Organisms as different as bacteria, mushrooms, algae, oak trees, and human beings are all made of cells.
15. Read the information above. Which statement is true for all cells?
a. All cells have the same shape.
b. All cells need energy to survive.
c. All cells are surrounded by a rigid wall.
d. All cells belong to organ systems.
Michelle is looking through a microscope at a cell from an onion root. She sees a cell that is in the process of dividing
to make a new cell. This is what Michelle sees:
16. Study the diagram and the description above. If Michelle were able to find an onion cell that had completed division,
what products of cell division would she see?
a. four different cells
b. only one cell
c. two identical cells
d. four identical cells
17. Study the diagram and the statement above. Michelle is observing cell division in an onion cell, but this type of cell division
also occurs in the human body. Which statement is not true about this type of cell division in humans?
a. This type of cell division is humans produces sex cells as well as body cells.
b. This type of cell division in humans occurs while bones are forming during development.
c. This type of cell division in humans can be affected by viruses.
d. This type of cell division in humans is necessary to heal cuts and wounds
18. Study the diagram and the description above. What is the name for the process Michelle is observing?
a. mutation
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. metamorphosis
19. Study the diagram and the information above. Which of these statements about cell division is true?
a. A newly formed daughter cell has less DNA than its parent cell.
b. Cells divide at random times.
c. New cells formed by cell division can replace dying cells in an organism.
d. The phases of cell division can occur in any order.
20. A special type of cell division, called meiosis, is used to form sex cells or gametes. Which statement is true above this
type of cell division?
a. The products of meiosis are two identical cells.
b. DNA is not copied at all during meiosis.
c. The new cells have half the DNA of the parent cell.
d. Meiosis is complete after only one round of cell division.
21. A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?
a. The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b. The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c. The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d. The water in the gums has moved from a high to a low concentration of water.
22. What advantage do sexually reproducing organisms have over asexually reproducing organisms?
a. genetic variation
b. genetic stability
c. increased fertilization rate
d. increased reproductive rate
23. What is the most likely function of a group of cells that contain a high number of chloroplasts?
a. respiration
b. transpiration
c. fermentation
d. photosynthesis
24. In humans, glucose is kept in balance in the bloodstream by insulin. Which concept does this best illustrate?
a. adaptation
b. homeostasis
c. metabolism
d. organization
25. In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a. Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b. Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c. Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d. Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
26. Which statement best distinguishes aerobic from anaerobic respiration?
a. Only aerobic respiration involves fermentation.
b. Only anaerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria.
c. Only aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
d. Only anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide.
27. Which most accurately describes the difference in ATP production between aerobic respiration and anaerobic
respiration?
a. Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.
b. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
c. Only anaerobic respiration produces measurable amounts of ATP.
d. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration produce the same amount of ATP.
28. A human skin cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in a human sperm cell?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 92
d. 138
29. What is homeostasis?
a. the ability of an organism to maintain a relatively stable internal environment
b. the production of a hormone by an endocrine gland that works on another endocrine gland
c. a series of events that monitor how hormones work in the body
d. a process in which a change in the environment causes a response that returns conditions to their original status
30. If the body stopped producing new Beta cells,
what would the expected outcome be?
a. The pancreas would no longer release
glucagon
b. High blood glucose levels would continue to
become normal
c. Insulin would no longer be released
d. Alpha cells would become beta cells
31. You just ran a marathon (26.2 miles) and your
body is trying to reach homeostasis.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Your blood vessels will constrict to conserve
heat
b. Your blood vessels will dilate to release body
heat
c. Your bodys control center will shut down
d. Your brain will tell your body not to sweat
Background Information:
DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid- large, complex macromolecule (polymer) makes
up our chromosomes, located in nucleus of the cell, controls all activities of cell,
double helix structure
Nucleotides- monomers (building blocks) that connect together to make up the
polymer DNA
3 Parts: sugar (deoxyribose is sugar for DNA, ribose is sugar for RNA),
phosphate group, & one of 4 nitrogenous bases (DNA- adenine,
thymine, guanine, cystosine & uracil replaces thymine in RNA)
Bonds: The strong, covalent bonds between the sugar-phosphate-sugar backbone of DNA
are called phosphodiester bonds. They hold the nucleotides together.
The steps or rungs of the twisted ladder of DNA are made up of two nitrogen bases that
are connected in the middle by weak hydrogen bonds.
Complementary base pairs:
Adenine and thymine always pair up to form a step/rung. They are held by a double
hydrogen bond.
Cytosine and guanine always pair to form a step/rung. They are held by a triple hydrogen
bond.
Purines- adenine (A) and guanine (G)- larger size
Pyrimidines- cytosine (C) and thymine (T)- smaller size
A trick to remember which bases pair together is to remember that the letters made with
straight lines go together (A & T) and the letters made with curved lines go together (C & G).
DNA Antiparallel Structure:
-Most DNA is twisted/coiled to the right
-one strand is the 3 (3 prime)=
the side with the free OH group
on the end
-one strand is the 5 (5 prime)=
the side with the free
phosphate on the end
DNA Replication:
The process by which a strand
of DNA is copied occurs during
something called replication.
In order to do this, the enzyme
DNA helicase moves down a
molecule of DNA and breaks
the weak hydrogen bonds between the nitrogen bases (A,T, C and G).
When they do this they unzip the ladder, which comes apart and the two sides of
the ladder separate.
A different enzyme, DNA polymerase comes along afterward and links the sugar
and phosphate molecules back up again, making new nucleotides and creating a
new ladder side for each of the old strands that came apart.
Each new strand of DNA now has half of the old strand that came apart and half of a new strand that was just created.
At the end of replication, there are 2 new identical strands of DNA- 1 side is from the original DNA strand (template)- The
other side is the newly formed strand that was copied
Replication is the process in which a DNA model is copied and that replication occurs during the S (synthesis) phase of
Interphase right before mitosis.
DNA, Proteins & Genetic Coding: DNA is directly connected to proteins because it contains the master plan for all living
organisms. Proteins are made up of smaller units (monomers) called amino acids, which are linked together in a specific
order to make specific proteins. These nitrogen bases link together in threes to form a codon and many codons link together
to form a persons genetic code. Codons, DNA triplets, code for one amino acid. Amino acids link together to form
polypeptides-chain containing 2 or more amino acids. Polypeptides make up proteins.
Genes code for polypeptides. Gene- a specific sequence of nucleotides forming part of a chromosome that codes for a trait
(protein). Codons are made up of 3 nitrogen bases, so they look like this: base + base + base = codon (Ex. ACG = a codon)
When you read one codon at a time it can be used to determine which amino acid (and this determines which protein) each
strand of DNA or RNA will code for.
Transcription: Changing DNA to RNA:
It is important to realize that DNA and proteins have a direct relationship.
In other words, DNA is used to make proteins and the first step by which it does this is a process called transcription.
RNA Bases:
The nitrogen bases are named as follows: adenine (A), uracil (U), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).
Notice- RNA does not contain the base thymine (T), instead adenine (A) will pair with uracil (U).
In transcription, an RNA (ribonucleic acid) strand is made from a strand of DNA.
In order for this to occur, a DNA strand unzips and RNA bases come along and pair up with the exposed DNA bases.
Enzymes reassemble the nucleotides and the strand is now called mRNA, or messenger RNA.
This is called messenger RNA because it will now deliver a message telling the ribosomes in the cell to get ready to start
making proteins.
Recall what is the function of a ribosome? To Synthesize Proteins!
Differences in DNA & RNA:
DNA
Double strand
Deoxyribose sugar
Thymine
In DNA, thymine pairs with adenine.
RNA
Single strand
Ribose sugar
Uracil instead of Thymine
In RNA, uracil pairs with adenine.
Translation: Converting RNA to Proteins
Translation is the process by which proteins are made
using RNA.
This process occurs in the ribosomes of the cell.
Translation happens when the ribosome reads the mRNA code and translates it into a specific amino acid sequence, which
becomes a protein.
Amino acids continue to link together to form proteins inside the ribosomes until a stop codon is read and the finished
proteins are released into the cell.
DNA
transcription
RNA
translation
Protein
Genetics: The scientific study of heredity is called genetics. Heredity is the study of how traits are passed from parent to
offspring.
A genotype is what we call the genetic make-up of organism.
A persons phenotype is a physical description of their genotype.
For example: A genotype that reads BB for hair color probably means that a persons phenotype for hair color is black
An individual that has two different alleles for the same trait is said to be heterozygous (Bb).
An individual that has two identical alleles for one trait is said to be homozygous (bb or BB).
Mendel:
A scientist named Gregor Mendel used purebred pea plants in order to understand how traits are
inherited. In his experiments, Mendel discovered that each trait is controlled by one gene that
occurs in two different forms. These different forms are referred to as alleles.
Mendels Postulates:
Theory of Dominance: Mendel concluded that some alleles are dominant & some are recessive. When an organism inherits a
dominant allele that trait is visible and the effects of a recessive allele cannot be seen. Example: Brown eyes are usually
dominant over blue eyes.
This doesnt mean that a recessive allele just disappears only that it is masked by the dominant one, making it invisible.
Law of Segregation: Mendel concluded that alleles separate when sex cells (egg & sperm) are formed. Each sex cell carries
only one copy of each gene.
Law of Independent Assortment: Mendel found that genes that control one trait (like hair color) do not affect genes that
control another trait (like hair texture). Each gene sorts independent of all others during the formation of sex cells.
Some alleles are neither dominant nor recessive, and many traits are controlled by multiple alleles or multiple genes. Here are
some exceptions to Mendels principles:
Incomplete dominance: Occurs when one allele is not completely dominant over another. For example, a cross between a
red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant that results in pink-flowered offspring.
Codominance: Occurs when both alleles contribute to a ones physical characteristics (phenotype). For example, in some
species of chicken black feathers and white feathers are codominant, therefore chickens that have these genes display speckled
black and white feathers
Monohybrid Crosses
A cross that provides data about one set of traits. (mono = one, hybrid = cross)
Each box is filled with two letters: one from the left side of the square and one from the top of the square; note that the
dominant trait is always written first.
The letters indicate the possible genotypes of the offspring.
For example: A cross between homozygous dominant (TT) and homozygous recessive (tt) plant:
Tt x tt
T
Tt
T
Tt
Tt
Tt
t
t
T
TT
t
Tt
Tt tt
t
A cross that involves two pairs of contrasting traits
(di = two, hybrid = cross).
In these crosses, alleles must be independently sorted and then listed for the cross.
For example: A cross between two heterozygous guinea pigs (SsBb x SsBb):
SB
Sb
sB
sb
SSBB
SSBb
SsBB
SbBb
S= short
SB
Dihybrid Crosses
SsBb x SsBb
SSBb
SSbb
SbBb
Ssbb
SsBB
SSBb
Ssbb
SSbb
ssBB
ssBb
ssBb
Ssbb
Sb
sB
sb
s = long
B = black
b = brown
The offspring that result from the cross of these two heterozygous guinea pigs have four different phenotypes:
9/16 = short, black hair
3/16 = short, black hair
3/16 = long, black hair
1/16 = long, brown hair
Questions
9:3:3:1 ratio
3. Which of the following correctly shows a complementary base pair of nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule?
a. adenine- guanine
b. guanine- cytosine
c. cytosine- adenine
d. guanine- thymine
4. DNA is a polymer which is made up of subunits called nucleotides. Nucleotides have three
basic parts. Which of these is not a nucleotide component?
a. deoxyribose sugar
b. phosphate group
c. ribose sugar
d. nitrogenous base
5. A nitrogenous base is an important component of the nucleotide making up DNA. Which of
the following correctly lists the four possible nitrogenous bases in DNA?
a. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
b. leucine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine
c. glutamine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine
d. adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
6. Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation?
a. An RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
b. Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein.
c. A copy of chromosomal DNA is created.
d. Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm.
7. In order for DNA instructions to move from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA copy of a DNA strand
must be made. This process, which takes place in the cell nucleus, is calleda. translation
b. DNA replication
c. mutation
d. transcription
8. John has one recessive allele for blue eyes (b) and one dominant allele for brown eyes (B). Amy also has one recessive allele for
blue eyes and one dominant allele for brown eyes. What phenotype is an offspring of John and Amy most likely to express?
a. Bb
b. BB
c. blue eyes
d. brown eyes
9. Bill grows two varieties of corn in his garden. One variety produces large ears of corn and one makes small ears of corn. When Bill
crosses the two plants the resulting ears of corn are medium in size. Which statement best explains Bills result?
a. The corn underwent a spontaneous mutation.
b. Ear size is a trait that shows incomplete dominance.
c. Ear size is controlled by the environment.
d. Ear size is not genetically controlled.
10. What process produces many variations in phenotypes?
a. independent assortment
b. asexual reproduction
c. regeneration
d. cloning
11. This chart represents amino acids that are coded from different combinations of mRNA codons.
Which amino acid sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?
a. Valine- Isoleucine- Glycine
b. Valine- Aspartic Acid- Alanine
c. Valine- Isoleucine- Alanine
d. Valine- Phenylalanine- Alanine
(Hint: You have to convert first into RNA)
12. Refer to the Codon chart above. A strand of DNA with the sequence AAC AAG CCC undergoes a mutation, and the first A is
changed to a C. How will this mutation affect the amino acid sequence?
a. One amino acid will change.
b. Two amino acids will change.
c. All of the amino acids will change.
d. The amino acids will remain the same.
13. One of the parents of a child has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by recessive alleles. The other parent does not have
the PKU alleles. What is the chance that the couple will have a child with phenylketonuria?
a. O%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
14. A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?
a. osmosis
b. photosynthesis
c. protein synthesis
d. respiration
15. Hitchhikers thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhikers thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhikers thumb marries a
man who is heterozygous for hitchhikers thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?
h
h
a. 0% Hh : 100% hh
Hh
Hh
b. 50% Hh : 50% hh
H
c. 75% Hh : 25% hh
hh
hh
d. 100% Hh : 0% hh
h
16. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. nucleic acids
d. proteins
17. A genetic counselor is examining a karyotype from a patient when an extra copy of chromosome 13 is noticed. This condition is
referred to as
a. trisomy
b. diploidy
c. triploidy
d. monosomy
18. This chart shows the results of several crosses with white-feathered chickens and dark-feathered chickens.
Cross
1
2
3
4
19. Which cross would be represented as Aa x aa, where (A) represents a dominant allele and (a) represents a recessive allele?
a. Cross 1
b. Cross 2
c. Cross 3
d. Cross 4
20. Due to independent assortment, what is the possible genetic make-up of gametes produced by this organism?
a. SsTt
b. SS, Tt
c. S, s, T, t
d. ST, St, sT, st
d. sex-linked allele
22. During DNA replication, which of the following segments would be complementary to the original DNA segment of CCTAAT?
a. CGATTA
b. GGUTTU
c. GGATTA
d. GGAUUA
23. What type of RNA is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis?
a. messenger RNA
b. transfer RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. mitochondrial RNA
24. To determine the molecular sequence of a gene for a protein, which molecule should be analyzed?
a. tRNA
b. ATP
c. DNA
d. rRNA
25. If a portion of a DNA strand has the base sequence TACGCA, what will be the base sequence of the mRNA strand transcribed?
a. TACGCA
b. UACGCA
c. AUGCGU
d. ATGCG
26. The chart to the right matches messenger RNA codons with amino acids.
A DNA strand has the codon TCA. According to the chart, the corresponding messenger RNA codes for which of the following amino
acids?
a. glycine
b. leucine
c. alanine
d. serine
27. In a genetics laboratory, two heterozygous tall plants are crossed. If tall is dominant over short, what are the expected
phenotypic results?
a. 100% tall
TT
Tt
b. 75% tall, 25% short
T Tt,
Tt- tall
tt- short
c. 50% tall, 50% short
Tt
tt
d. 25% tall, 75% short
t
28. When viewing a karyotype to detect genetic disorders, which of the following would be a concern?
a. different chromosomes of different lengths
b. two X chromosomes
c. twenty-three pairs of chromosomes
d. three chromosomes in any one set
29. Color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A mother with normal color vision and a color blind father have a color blind
daughter. Which of the following statements is correct?
Xb
Y
B b
a. All of their daughters will be color blind.
XX
XBY
b. The mother is a carrier of the color blindness gene.
XB
c. All of their sons will have normal color vision.
XbXb
XbY
d. All of their sons will be color blind.
Xb
(Hint: Daughter is color blind so she must be X bXb as color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. That means she gets one X from
mom and one from dad. Dad is color blind so his only X is Xb- all he can pass on to his daughters is the infected X with color
blindness. If daughter is XbXb as she is color blind, one infected X came from dad, other must have come from mom. Mom has
normal vision so she cant be XbXb , therefore she is heter XBXb..)
30. After performing amniocentesis, which analysis is most often used to determine the chromosomal condition of a developing
fetus?
a. blood type
b. DNA sequence
c. genetic marker
d. karyotype
31. Albinism is a genetic mutation that results in some animals being born without the enzyme that produces the pigment for skin
and eye color. Which of the following best explains this mutation?
a. The DNA failed to replicate.
b. The deoxyribose sugar became separated from the DNA.
c. The genetic code change caused the wrong protein to form.
d. The RNA necessary to produce proteins was not present.
33. The figure to the right shows embryonic stages of three different kinds of organisms.
What does the figure suggest about these organisms?
a. They underwent similar mutations.
b. The share the same acquired traits.
c. They originated in the same location.
d. They show similar embryonic development.
34. How do the functions of DNA and RNA differ?
a. DNA directs protein transport, while RNA aids in energy production.
b. DNA aids in energy production, while RNA directs protein transport.
c. DNA stores genetic information, while RNA relays genetic information for protein synthesis.
d. DNA relays genetic information for protein synthesis, while RNA stores genetic information.
35. One way in which a point mutation and a deletion mutation are different is that
a. a point mutation is always harmful, and a deletion mutation is never harmful
b. a point mutation is a physical change, and a deletion mutation is a chemical change
c. a point mutation always results in a frameshift mutation, while a deletion mutation never results in a
frameshift mutation
d. a point mutation only results in a change in a single nucleotide base, while a deletion mutation can result in a c change in
multiple nucleotide bases
36. The illustration below shows a step in DNA replication.
Starting at the top, which list shows the identity of the bases of
the new strand?
a. A, G, T, A
b. G, A, T, G
c. G, A, U, G
d. A, G, U, A
Background Information:
Theory- a well-supported testable explanation of phenomena that have occurred in the natural world
Evolution- change over time; modern organisms have descended from ancient organisms.
Darwins Theory of Evolution: An adaptation is a trait that helps an organism be more suited to its environment
Darwin decided adaptations develop over time
Natural selection- organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate than less
well-adapted organisms in the same environment
Long-term survival of any species of organisms is possible only if the organisms can
reproduce successfully
Organisms most fit to reproduce are selected by environment which results in
adaptation of the population
Fitness- ability of an individual to survive and reproduce in its environment
Natural selection is also called survival of the fittest
Conditions for natural selection include:
A. Genetic variations exist among members of a population
B. Many more individuals are produced each generation than will survive
C. Some individuals are better adapted so they survive and reproduce
D. Members of a population compete for food, space, mates etc.
Common Descent- All species- living and extinct- were derived from common
ancestors; Darwin called this Descent with modification
Anatomical Evidence of Evolution: Organisms have anatomical similarities when
they are closely related because of common descent
1. Homologous Structures- in different organisms are inherited from a
common ancestor have similar structures (but different function)
EX: vertebrate forelimbs contain the same sets of bones organized in similar ways, despite their dissimilar functions
2. Analogous Structures- are inherited from different ancestors and have come to resemble each other because they
serve a similar function
EX. Bat wings vs. butterfly wings- both for flight but they are
structurally different
3. Vestigial Structures- are remains of a structure that have reduced in size because they no longer serve and
important function
EX: Humans have a tailbone but no tail
EX: Hip/leg bones in pythons and whales, appendix in humans
4. Similarities in embryology- the early stages of embryo development in vertebrates show many similarities.
Patterns of Evolution:
1. Adaptive Radiation: A single species or small group of species has evolved, through natural selection and other processes,
into diverse forms that live in different ways
2. Convergent Evolution: Unrelated organisms come to resemble one another; Start out with different raw material for
natural selections; Face similar environmental demands; Natural selection molds similar traits
3. Coevolution- two species evolve in response to changes in each other over time; Organisms closely connected to one
another by ecological interactions evolve together; EX: Flowers and pollinators
Endosymbiosis: Most biologists think that mitochondria and chloroplasts were once prokaryotes that formed a partnership
with another cell; they contain their own DNA and ribosomes and they reproduce independently of the cells they are in
Analogous Structures:
Cell
Cell Ribosomes
Wall
Membrane
Peptidoglycan
Flagellum
DNA Pili
Some bacteria are producers; produce food through photosynthesis (1st link in food chains)
Others are decomposers; they break down nutrients in dead matter and recycle
Nitrogen fixation bacteria convert nitrogen gas in air to a form plants can use. Bacteria live in root nodules in legume plants
(beans)
Human Uses of Bacteria- our bodies are covered in bacteria, some harmful, many are not
E. Coli bacteria in our intestines produce vitamins that our body cannot make. Example of a symbiotic relationship.
Use bacteria for making food cheese and yogurt
Archaebacteria are used for purifying water (sewage, oil spills)
Bacterial Diseases in Humans:
Bacteria produce disease in 2 ways:
Damage cells & tissues Ex: strep throat, tuberculosis, bubonic plague
Produce toxins Ex: salmonella, botulism
Preventing Bacterial Diseases:
Vaccine - weakened form of bacteria that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies against the disease.
Antibiotics - compounds that stop bacterial growth. Antibiotics work only on BACTERIAL diseases.
Viruses: particles of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), proteins, and in some cases, lipids;
NOT made of cells; cannot live independently outside of a host, all they do is replicate; a
typical virus is composed of a core of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
Structure: capsid- a viruss protein coat that helps virus enter host cell
Bacteriophage- virus that infects a bacterium
Lytic Cycle Viral Infection- viral replication cycle in which a virus takes over a host
cells genetic material and uses the host cells structures and energy to replicate until
the host cell bursts, killing it
Lysogenic Cycle Viral Infection- viral replication cycle in which a viruss nucleic acid is
integrated into a host cells chromosome; the host cell is not killed until the lytic cycle is
activated
Retroviruses: Contain RNA as their nucleic acid (genetic information), instead of DNA
Called retroviruses because genetic information is copied backwards, from RNA to DNA
Reverse transcriptase- enzyme carried in the capsid of a retrovirus that helps produce viral DNA
from viral RNA
The DNA is then integrated into the host cells chromosome
Examples include: HIV, some cancers, hepatitis are caused by retroviruses
HIV Virus: Infects helper T cells in the immune system.
HIV can incubate for years, then it will be activated.
AIDS = acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, infected persons cannot fight off other diseases.
Prions: are proteins that cause infections; no nucleic acid to carry genetic info
Viroids: are single-stranded RNA molecules that have no capsid (protein coat)
QUESTIONS
1. Structural adaptations help organisms survive in various environments. Which of these is not an example of a structural
adaptation?
a. The harmless syrphid fly resembles the yellow jacket in coloring and body shape.
b. The leaf frogs coloring and shape make camouflage on the forest floor possible.
c. Mole-rats have large teeth and claws which help them dig tunnels and escape predators.
d. A lizard finds a shady spot to escape the suns heat.
2. Penicillin is widely used to kill bacteria which cause disease. However, this drug does not affect as many species of
bacteria today as it did when it was first discovered. Which statement describing this situation is false?
a. Thousands of years were required for bacteria to become resistant to penicillin.
b. The ability of bacteria to resist penicillin varies within a population.
c. Bacteria which are resistant to penicillin will survive exposure to the drug.
d. Bacteria which are resistant to penicillin will produce penicillin-resistant offspring.
8. Living organisms are classified into kingdoms based on their structure and shared characteristics. In what kingdom
would a scientist classify an organism that is made up of eukaryotic cells, is multicellular, and is a consumer?
a. Protista
b. Archaea
c. Plantae
d. Animalia
9. Heidi Takashi is a farmer who grows corn. About 10 years ago, Ms. Takashi began spraying her fields with herbicide, a
chemical that kills plants, to kill weeds in the corn field. For a few years the herbicide killed nearly all of the weeds in Ms.
Takashis corn field. One year, Ms. Takashi noticed that some weeds were growing even after being sprayed with herbicide.
The next year, even more weeds were still alive after herbicide-spraying. Based on what you know about how organisms
adapt to their environment, what is the most likely reason to explain the results of Ms. Takashis use of herbicide?
10. At one time, scientists believed all organisms belonged to either the plant kingdom or the animal kingdom. Today some
scientists classify organisms into one of six kingdoms: plant, animal, fungus, protist, eubacteria, and archaebacteria. Which
of these characteristics helps determine the kingdom to which an organism belongs?
15. Many scientists classify viruses as non-living things. Which of these best describes why a virus might be classified as
non-living?
a. It has no genetic material of its own.
b. It reproduces only when it is inside a cell.
c. It can take control of a cell and change its normal activities.
d. Its effects on an organism are always harmful.
16. The photograph to the right shows a virus attacking a human T cell
(immune cell).
Which disease could result if many T cells are destroyed in this manner?
a. AIDS
b. Tuberculosis
c. Chicken pox
d. Multiple sclerosis
17. A virus has been approved for use as a food additive because it attacks and kills bacteria
harmful to humans. The virus kills the bacteria by doing which of the following?
a. ingesting the bacteria
b. injecting its own genetic material into the bacteria
c. absorbing the oxygen that the bacteria need for respiration
d. producing toxins that prevent the bacteria from reproducing
18. Viruses that contain RNA as their genetic information are
a. prophages
b. bacteriophages
d. retroviruses
d. capsids
19. If a flu virus infects a person, which of the following will MOST likely occur inside the person?
a. Deformed bone and skin cells will appear
b. The pH of the bloodstream will change slightly
c. The number of viruses will increase dramatically
d. Body cells will temporarily stop undergoing mitosis
20. How does a virus differ from a cell?
a. Viruses are much larger than the largest cells
b. A virus cannot copy itself unless it is inside a living cell
c. Cells make people sick, but viruses heal them
d. A virus can make copies of itself before invading a body
21. How does using killed or weakened bacteria in an immunization help the body prevent infections?
a. Antibodies are formed that fight those types of bacteria
b. The body develops a fever that kills beneficial bacteria
c. Bacterial reproductive cycles are disrupted
d. Bacteria-fighting viruses are activated
22. What is the basic structure of a virus?
a. DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
b. a capsid surrounded by a protein coat
c. a tail sheath surrounded by tail fibers
d. a tiny cell surrounded by a cell wall
A
B
a.
b.
c.
d.
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QUESTIONS
1. Celia steps off the sidewalk without looking into the street, and narrowly misses being hit by a car. Her heart beats faster, her
breathing becomes more rapid, her skin gets cold and clammy, and she begins to tremble. Which of the following triggers this
fight-or flight response in Celia?
4. Refer to the information above. How are animal populations affected by volcanic activity?
a. Animal populations decrease after volcanic activity, but reestablish over time.
b. Animals never return to an area affect by volcanic activity.
c. Animal populations are not affected by volcanic activity.
d. Animal populations are only slightly affected by volcanic activity.
Organisms within food webs are interdependent and often compete for resources.
5. Read the statement given above. Organisms that use light energy stored in chemical compounds to make energy-rich
compounds are known asa. heterotrophs
b. autotrophs
c. scavengers
d. decomposers
Which of these best describes the jackrabbit in this desert community food web?
a. The jackrabbit is an autotroph.
b. The jackrabbit is a producer.
c. The jackrabbit is prey for the coyote.
d. The jackrabbit is a carnivore.
7. The diagram below shows a food web made up of a variety of organisms involved in
different feeding relationships. Which term best describes the role of crickets in the
food web shown?
a. Crickets are predators of frogs.
b. Crickets are prey for spiders and snakes.
c. Crickets are a second-order consumer of spiders.
d. Crickets are producers of energy.
8. The pods from honey mesquite trees are a food source for beetles.
Which of these best describes the honey mesquite trees in this desert community food web?
a. The honey mesquite tree is an omnivore.
b. The honey mesquite tree is a predator of beetles.
c. The honey mesquite tree is a consumer.
d. The honey mesquite tree is a producer.
9. The desert tortoise feeds on prickly pear cactus and other plants.
Which of these best describes the desert tortoise in this desert community food web?
a. The desert tortoise is an herbivore.
c. The desert tortoise is a predator.
b. The desert tortoise is a producer.
d. The desert tortoise is a carnivore.
10. The diagram shows a pyramid of energy, with producers at the bottom and
higher order consumers occupying successively higher levels. As energy is
transferred from producers to first-order, second-order, and higher-order
consumers, a large amount of energy is converted to thermal energy and given
off as heat. Which statement is true?
a. More useful energy is available to higher-order consumers than to first-order
consumers.
b. The amount of useful energy is no different at different levels of the pyramid.
c. The amount of useful energy increases at each successively higher level in the
pyramid.
d. Less useful energy is available to higher-order consumers than to first-order consumers.
11. The prickly-pear cactus shown in the figure above has a leaf adaptation that
a. pumps out salt
c. produces thick, green stems
b. reduces water loss
d. produces seeds when it rains
12. How is the cactus in the figure above adapted to soak up rare rainfall quickly?
a. It has thin, sharp spines.
b. It has stems that shrivel when it rains.
c. It has wide stems that catch rainwater.
d. It has an extensive shallow root system.
13. How is the cactus in the figure above adapted to survive long dry periods?
a. Its stems swell and store water.
b. It leaves drop off when it gets dry.
c. Its root system holds water for later use.
d. It remains dormant when there is no rain.
14. The crab Lybia tessellate carries a pair of sea anemones on its claws. The crab uses the sea anemones stinging tentacles as
protection and the sea anemone obtains small food particles released by the crab as it feeds. Which type of symbiotic
relationship does this best illustrate?
a. commensalism
b. mutualism
c. parasitism
d. predation
15. What is the main difference between primary succession and secondary succession?
a. Primary succession happens slowly, and secondary succession happens rapidly.
b. Small plants grow first during primary succession, while large trees grow first during secondary succession.
c. Primary succession occurs after a natural disaster, and secondary succession occurs before a natural disaster.
d. Primary succession is the colonization of new sites, and secondary succession is colonization of previously inhabited
sites.
16. An example of a biotic factor in the ecosystem shown to the right is
a. the Sun
b. the soil
c. the water
d. the plants
17. The symbiotic relationship between a tick and the dog it is biting is called
a. predation
b. parasitism
c. mutualism
d. commensalism
18. A person sweating on a hot day would most likely be an example of what biological process?
a. digestion
b. respiration
c. homeostasis
d. gametogenesis
19. Why do leaves tend to be flat?
a. so that water can easily be absorbed and carried to the rest of the plant
b. so that sunlight can easily penetrate to the leafs photosynthetic tissues
c. so that nutrients can easily enter the plant and be used for structure and support.
d. so that plants can easily find balance due to the symmetrical nature of their branches
20. Moss often grows on trees. The tree is not affected, while the moss has the nutrients it needs to grow. What type of
symbiotic relationship is this?
a. predatory
b. parasitism
c. mutualism
d. commensalism
21. Which best describes the interaction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
a. One competes with the other for access to sunlight and soil.
b. One decomposes the other to release nutrients back into the soil.
c. One helps produce the other in a mutually beneficial relationship.
d. One consumes the other to use energy that originally came from the sun.
22. The diagram to the below of an aquatic ecosystem represents what elemental cycle on Earth?
a. water
b. carbon
c. nitrogen
d. phosphorus
23. The figure below shows the number of plants and animals necessary to support life of one high-level consumer in a
temperature grassland biome.
24. The figure represents the flow of energy througha. different trophic levels in most ecosystems
b. soil, plants, and animals during the nitrogen cycle
c. different organisms within a single level of most food webs
d. the atmosphere, land, and bodies of water during the water cycle
25. Which organism in the aquatic food web to the right gets energy directly from the Sun?
a. krill
b. baleen whale
c. phytoplankton
d. both krill and the baleen whale